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Daily Prelims Test – 10_June 2021

  Consider the following statements regarding Election Commissioner of India:

  • 1. The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
  • 2. They all have the tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • 3. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

 a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: New Election Commissioner appointed

  • President Ram Nath Kovind on Tuesday appointed Anup Chandra Pandey, a retired Uttar Pradesh-cadre IAS officer, to the post of Election Commissioner.

About Election Commission of India:

  • The constitution under article 324 provides for an Election Commission for the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for the conduct of elections to parliament, state legislatures and to the offices of president and vice president.
  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
  • The body administers elections to the LokSabha, RajyaSabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country. 
  • The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. 
  • Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

Appointment & Tenure of Commissioners:

  • The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • They have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Hence statement (3) is correct.
  • The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.
  • All Election Commissioners have equal say in the decision making of the Commission.

Source: TH Pg:No: 1

Consider the following Statements regarding Autonomous District Councils:

  • They are empowered with civil and judicial powers to constitute village courts within their jurisdiction to hear the trial of cases involving the tribes.
  • The Fifth schedule to the Constitution includes 10 autonomous district councils in 4 states.
  • Each autonomous district council consists of not more than 30 members.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Rengma Nagas demand autonomous council

  • The Rengma Nagas in Assam have written to Union Home Minister Amit Shah demanding an autonomous district council amid a decision by the Central and the State governments to upgrade the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council (KAAC) into a territorial council.
  • The Rengma Naga Peoples’ Council (RNPC), a registered body, said in the memorandum that the Rengmas were the first tribal people in Assam to have encountered the British in 1839, but the existing Rengma Hills was eliminated from the political map of the State and replaced with that of Mikir Hills (now Karbi Anglong) in 1951.

About Autonomous districts and regional councils

  • The Councils have also been endowed with wide civil and criminal judicial powers, for example establishing village courts etc. However, the jurisdiction of these councils is subject to the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • Governors of states that fall under the Sixth Schedule specify the jurisdiction of high courts for each of these cases.
  • Along with ADCs, the Sixth Schedule also provides for separate Regional Councils for each area constituted as an autonomous region.
  • In all, there are 10 areas in the Northeast that are registered as autonomous districts – three in Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram and one in Tripura. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
  • These regions are named as district council of (name of district) and regional council of (name of region).
  • Each autonomous district and regional council consists of not more than 30 members, of which four are nominated by the governor and the rest via elections. All of them remain in power for a term of five years. Hence statement (3) is correct.

About Sixth Schedule

  • The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, according to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Passed by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, it seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC).
  • ADCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.
  • The governors of these states are empowered to reorganize boundaries of the tribal areas.
  • In simpler terms, she or he can choose to include or exclude any area, increase or decrease the boundaries and unite two or more autonomous districts into one.
  • They can also alter or change the names of autonomous regions without separate legislation.

Source: Th Pg:No: 8

Consider the following Statements regarding QS World University Rankings:

  • It is an annual publication of university rankings which comprises the global overall and subject rankings.
    • It calculates the performance of the universities based on the parameters including Academic reputation and Employer reputation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: JNU enters list of top 1,000 universities

  • Jawaharlal Nehru University has entered the top 1,000 of the QS World University rankings for the first time, as its new undergraduate engineering programme now makes it eligible for the rating.
  • Overall, there are 22 Indian institutions in the top 1,000 list compared to 21 last year, with the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) in Guwahati, Kanpur, Kharagpur and Madras making major strides in rankings.
  • IIT Bombay maintained its position as the top Indian institution for the fourth consecutive year, although it fell five places in the global rankings to the joint 177th position.
  • IIT Delhi (185th rank) overtook the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore (186th rank), giving India three institutions in the world’s top 100.
  • Of the 35 Indian institutions in the rankings, 20 have improved on academic reputation this year.

About QS World University Rankings:

  •  It is an annual publication of university rankings which comprises the global overall and subject rankings. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • QS is a leading global career and education network for ambitious professionals looking to further their personal and professional development.
  • QS develops and successfully implements methods of comparative data collection and analysis used to highlight institutions’ strengths.
  • It calculates the performance of the universities based on the following four parameters: Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • Academic reputation
  • Employer reputation
  • Research impact (citations per paper)
  • Productivity of an institution’s research faculty
  • Subjects Covered:
  • It covers a total of 51 disciplines grouped into five broad subject areas: 1) Arts & Humanities 2) Engineering and Technology 3) Life Sciences & Medicine 4) Natural Sciences and 5) Social Sciences & Management.

Source: TH Pg:No: 8

Consider the following Statements regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA):

  • 1. It is a statutory body of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  • 2. It functions as a nodal body for the adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoption.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Take action against illegal adoption: SC

  • The Supreme Court has directed the States and the Union Territories to take stringent action against private individuals and NGOs who invite people to illegally adopt children orphaned by the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • No adoption of affected children should be permitted contrary to the provisions of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
  • It was illegal to invite strangers to adopt children, already traumatised by their personal losses, without the involvement of the Central Adoption Resource Authority.
  • NCPCR statistics show that 3,621 children were orphaned, 26,176 children lost either parent and 274 abandoned between April 1, 2021 to June 5, 2021. The court is hearing a suo motu case on the plight of children impacted by the pandemic.
  • It ordered the States and the Union Territories to continue with their efforts to identify children in need of care and protection after March 2020 and upload their details on the NCPCR database in order to provide them welfare schemes.

About Central Adoption Resource Authority

  •  Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been set up as a statutory body of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  •  It functions as a nodal body for the adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoption. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Conventions on Inter-Country Adoptions, 1993, ratified by the Government of India in 2003.
  • CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
  • CARA is also mandated to frame regulations on adoption-related matters from time to time as per Section 68 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.

Source: TH Pg:No: 10

With respect to Sea Snot, consider the following statements:

  • 1. It is a green sludge which can increase the productivity of the marine ecosystem.
  • 2. It is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Turkey says it will defeat ‘sea snot’ outbreak in Marmara Sea

  • Turkey’s Sea of Marmara, which connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea, has witnessed the largest outbreak of ‘sea snot’.

What is causing ‘sea snot’ in the seas of Turkey?

  • ‘Sea snot’ is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming.
  • Water pollution adds to the problem.
  • The mucilage floats up on the surface of the sea and poses a severe threat to the marine ecosystem. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
  • It has caused mass deaths among the fish population and has killed other aquatic organisms such as corals and sponges.
  • It has also spread to 80-100 feet below the surface. If not checked and taken care of, it can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor.
  • Over a period of time, it can poison all aquatic life, including fishes, crabs, oysters, mussels and sea stars.
  • It has also affected the livelihoods of fishermen as the sludge is getting collected in their nets, making them so heavy that they break or get lost.

Steps Taken

  • The entire Sea of Marmara will be turned into a protected area.
  • Steps are being taken to reduce pollution and improve treatment of waste water from coastal cities and ships.
  • All other steps under the framework of a disaster management plan are being taken to save not only the present but also the future.
  • Turkey’s biggest maritime clean-up operation is being launched.
  • Local residents, artists and NGOs are being called to join hands to extend assistance.

Preventive Measures

  • The government should impose strong penalties on waste disposal facilities that fail to follow the rules.
  • Fresh investments to treat and purify waste water being pumped out of Istanbul are needed to provide a long-term solution to the crisis.
  • Turkey has planned to reduce nitrogen levels in the sea by 40 per cent, which would help tackle the crisis and prevent it from happening again.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/turkey-says-it-will-defeat-sea-snot-outbreak-in-marmara-sea/article34750434.ece

Sea of marmara connects which of the following two seas?

a) Andaman Sea and South China Sea

b) Aegean and Mediterranean seas

c) Java Sea and Celebes Sea

d) Black Sea and Aegean Sea

Answer: (d) Black Sea and Aegean Sea

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained: What is the ‘sea snot’ outbreak in Turkey, and what effect can it have on the marine ecosystem?

  • Recently, Turkey’s Sea of Marmara has witnessed the largest outbreak of sea snot. Turkey’s Sea of Marmara, that connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • Sea of Marmara, Turkish Marmara Denizi, historically Propontis, inland sea partly separating the Asiatic and European parts of Turkey.
  • It is connected through the Bosporus on the northeast with the Black Sea and through the Dardanelles on the southwest with the Aegean Sea.
  • The Bosphorus connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara, and, by extension via the Dardanelles, the Aegean and Mediterranean seas.
  • The Dardanelles connects the Sea of Marmara with the Aegean and Mediterranean Seas, while also allowing passage to the Black Sea by extension via the Bosphorus.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-the-sea-snot-outbreak-in-turkey-7347989/

Consider the following statements regarding UN Economic and Social Council:

  • It is a heart of the United Nations system to advance the sustainable development economic, social and environmental
    • It has 54 members elected by the General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: India joins UN Economic and Social Council for 2022-24 term

  • India was elected to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), one of the six main organs of the United Nations, for the 2022-24 term.
    • India has been selected in Asia-Pacific States category. Other elected countries include Oman, Afghanistan and Kazakhstan.
    • In all, 18 states were elected to the ECOSOC, the coordinating body for the economic and social work of UN agencies and funds, for a three-year term beginning on January 1, 2022.

About Economic and Social Council

  • It is the principal body for coordination, policy review, policy dialogue and recommendations on economic, social and environmental issues, as well as implementation of internationally agreed development goals.
    • It has 54 members, elected by the General Assembly for overlapping three-year termsHence statement (2) is correct.
    • It is the UN’s central platform for reflection, debate and innovative thinking on sustainable development. Hence statement (1) is correct
    • Each year, ECOSOC structures its work around an annual theme of global importance to sustainable development. This ensures focused attention, among ECOSOC’s array of partners and throughout the UN development system.
    • It coordinates the work of the 14 UN specialized agencies, ten functional commissions and five regional commissions, receives reports from nine UN funds and programmes and issues policy recommendations to the UN system and to member states.
  • Few important bodies under the purview of ECOSOC:
    • Apart from these there are various Functional and Regional Commissions, Standing Committees, Ad Hoc and Expert Bodies as well.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/india-elected-to-un-economic-and-social-council-for-2022-24-term/article34757958.ece

Consider the following statements regarding CEO Water Mandate:

  • It aims to demonstrate the commitment and efforts of companies towards better water and sanitation agendas as part of Sustainable Development Goals.
    • It is a UN Global Compact initiative.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: NTPC joins UN’s CEO Water mandate; to step up work on water conservation with reduce, reuse and recycle

  • NTPC Ltd, India’s largest power utility Under Ministry of Power has become a signatory to the prestigious UN Global Compact’s CEO Water Mandate.
  • NTPC has already taken a series of measures across its plant locations on sound water management. NTPC will further imbibe the 3 R’s (reduce, reuse, recycle) for water conservation and management while carrying out its core business activity of power generation.

About CEO Water Mandate

  •  UN’s CEO Water Mandate is a UN Global Compact initiative to demonstrate the commitment and efforts of companies towards better water and sanitation agendas as part of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Hence statements (1) and (2) are
  • The mandate is designed to assist companies in the development, implementation, and disclosure of comprehensive water strategies and policies.
  • It also provides a platform for companies to partner with like-minded businesses, UN agencies, public authorities, civil society organizations and other key stakeholders.
  • The mandate is now endorsed by over 180 companies from a range of industry sectors and regions around the world.

About United Nations Global Compact Initiative:

  • United Nations Global Compact is a non-binding United Nations Initiative.
  • It aims to encourage companies worldwide to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies. For that, the UN categorised 10 principles ranging from human rights, anti-corruption, environment, labour, etc.
  • The initiative was announced by the then UN Secretary-General in 1999. It was officially launched at UN Headquarters in New York City in 2000.

Source: TH

Consider the following Statements:

  • 1. Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines a contract of indemnity.
  • 2. It is defined as a contract by which one party promises to save the other from any loss caused to the latter.
  • 3. The law on drugs in India does not have a provision for indemnity related to the grant of approval for any new drug or vaccine in the country.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained | What is indemnity, and how will it affect COVID-19 vaccine pricing and availability in India?

  • The Union government is in talks with foreign manufacturers of COVID-19 vaccines on their demand for Indemnity from liability as a condition for selling their vaccines to the country.
  • However, this has already given rise to a similar demand from domestic vaccine-maker Serum Institute of India(SII). As they believe, all players should be treated the same way.

What is Indemnity?

  • In simple terms, indemnity means security against a loss or other financial stress. This is commonly used in insurance contracts.
  • In legal terms, It protects the manufacturers from any potential civil-legal liability or immunity from being sued by people for any unforeseen complications arising from their COVID-19 vaccine.
  • The law on drugs in India does not have a provision for indemnity related to the grant of approval for any new drug or vaccine in the country. Hence statement (3) is correct.
  • Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines a contract of indemnity. It is defined as a contract by which one party promises to save the other from any loss caused to the latter. Hence statements (1) and (2) are correct.
  • If the government gives an indemnity to vaccine manufacturers, then the government, and not the vaccine maker, would be liable to compensate any citizen who claims to have side effects/death due to taking the vaccine.
  • In the event of a court ordering payment, the company will be in a position to recover the amount from the government.
  • Indemnity is essentially a contractual matter between the supplier and recipient.
  • For example, Pfizer is believed to have obtained indemnity from several countries including the United Kingdom. However, it has declined to discuss the issue in public.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/explained-what-is-indemnity-and-how-will-it-affect-covid-19-vaccine-pricing-and-availability-in-india/article34740900.ece

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?

a) Directive Principles of State Policy

b) Fundamental Rights

c) Preamble

d) Seventh Schedule

Answer: (a) Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation:

A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well -being of its citizens. It is based on the principles of equality of opportunity, equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions for a good life. The Directive Principles of State Policy embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’. Hence option (a) is correct.