1. Which of the statements are correct about Barahnaja?
a) It is a Sikh festival
b) It is a biochemical process of removing oxygen
c) It is a crop diversification system for cultivating 12 crops in a year.
d) It is newly found orchid species in Rajasthan region
Answer: (c) It is a crop diversification system for cultivating 12 crops in a year.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Immense need for crop diversification and role of agro-forestry .
Input cost to increase productivity has increased over the last five decades
· The traditional approach of low input-based extensive and diversified agricultural practices termed as ‘crop diversification’ could be an alternate approach that might be used to save farming as a counter-strategy for farming bio-socio-psychological anomalies.
· Crop diversification is a strategy applied to grow more diverse crops from shrinking land resources with an increase in productivity in the same arable land.
· The mono-cropping pattern also reduces resource-use efficiency. Thus, breaking the mono-cropping pattern by the introduction of diverse crops and cropping patterns helps in reviving the soil health and increasing the resource use efficiency.
· Traditional pattern of agriculture in India has wider crop diversity, more stable and pro-nature.
· In the Garhwal Himalayan region of India, Barahnaja is a crop diversification system for cultivating 12 crops in a year. Hence (c) is the correct answer.
· ‘Barah anaaj’ literally means ‘12 foodgrains’ and is the traditional heritage of the area.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Agro forestry
1) It is a collective name for land-use systems involving trees combined with crops and/or animals on the same unit of land.
2) It may damage the food crop during tree harvest operation.
3) It will reduce surface run-off, nutrient leaching and soil erosion.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS
· The integrated farming system is an offshoot of agroforestry, advocating the diversification of the agri-production with other associated secondary and tertiary agriculture practices
· Agroforestry is a land-use system that includes trees, crops and / or livestock in a spatial and temporal manner, balancing both ecological and economic interactions of biotic and abiotic components. Hence statement 1 is correct
· It harnesses the complementarity between trees and crops for efficient utilisation of available resources.
· Agro-forestry can generate food, feed, fruits, fibre, fuel, fodder, fish, flavour, fragrance, floss, gum and resins as well as other non-wood products for food and nutritional security.
· It can also support livelihoods and promote productive, resilient agricultural environments in all ecologies.
· Agro-forestry is an important land-use system for diversification around the world in different spheres of biological, ecological, economical and sociological considerations.
· Globally, different agro-forestry practices have played a key role in crop diversification
· The major agro-forestry practices in India include multifunctional improved fallows, home gardens, plantation crop-based mixed-species production systems, alley cropping, woodlots, windbreaks, protein banks, shifting cultivation and Taungya in different regions.
· Agro-forestry contributes to a multifunctional production system which enhances biodiversity due to the creation of diverse habitat for macro- and micro-organisms and maintaining landforms for future generations.
· Reduction of surface run-off, nutrient leaching and soil erosion through impending effect of tree roots and stems of these processes. Hence statement 3 is correct
· Possible competition of trees with food crops for space, sunlight, moisture and nutrients which may reduce food crop yield and damage to food crop during tree harvest operation. Hence statement 2 is correct
3. Consider the following statements regarding Satkosia Tiger Reserve(STR)
1) It comprises of two adjoining Sanctuaries of Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary.
2) The Krishna River passes through this reserve.
3) In the STR, India’s first inter-State tiger relocation programme was launched.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Forest dept. is relocating three villages from the core area
· Fifteen years after declaration as a tiger reserve and failure of revival of big cat population through India’s first inter-State tiger relocation programme, the Satkosia Tiger Reserve (STR) in Odisha has started making efforts afresh to re-establish it as a tiger habitat.
· The State and Forest department are attempting to relocate inhabitants of three villages from its core area to create 500 sq km area of inviolate zone for tigers.
· The STR was declared as tiger reserve in 2007.
· To revive tiger population in the STR, India’s first inter-State tiger relocation programme was launched by way of import of a pair of tiger and tigress from Kanha Tiger Reserve and Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in 2018. Hence statement 3 is correct
· But, the programme had failed primarily due to hostility of local communities
Satkosia Tiger Reserve
· The Satkosia Tiger Reserve comprising Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (part) on its north and Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (Part) & Baisipalli Sanctuary. Hence statement 1 is correct
· The area of Satkosia Tiger Reserve supports moist deciduous forest, dry deciduous forest and moist peninsular Sal forest.
· This area is the home for Tiger, Leopard, Elephant, Gaur, Sambar, Spotted deer, Mouse deer, Nilgai, Chousingha, Sloth bear, Wild dog etc., Varieties of resident and migratory birds, reptilian species( Gharial, Magar, Crocodile, Fresh Water turtle, Poisons & Non poisons snakes etc.)
· The Mahanadi River passes through a 22 km long gorge in the Eastern Ghats mountains. The area is also a part of the Mahanadi elephant reserve. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
· In March 1974, the Forest Department of the Government of Orissa with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) started a breeding programme of crocodiles.
· In March 1975, the Gharial Research and Conservation Unit (GRACU) was started, which has done pioneering work in crocodile conservation in India.
What was the Tiger Relocation Project?
· The tiger relocation project was initiated in 2018 wherein two big cats, a male (Mahavir) from Kanha Tiger Reserve and a female (Sundari) from Bandhavgarh from Madhya Pradesh were relocated to Satkosia Tiger Reserve in Odisha, to shore up the tiger population in the state.
4. Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource
1) It is a customary common forest land located in village traditional and customary boundaries.
2) It falls under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 to ensure community co-managed system of participation for sustainable conservation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Assam villagers oppose sanctuary tag for golden langur habitat
Neighbours of a golden langur habitat in western Assam’s Bongaigaon district have opposed a move by the State government to upgrade it to a wildlife sanctuary.
As primary stakeholders, the villagers demanded that the “conventional idea of wildlife sanctuary” be dropped and the reserve forest converted into a community forest resource
What are Community Forest Resource?
· Any forest resource that the tribal and other forest dwelling communities use and depend on for a livelihood, is known as Community Forest Resource. This can be a common forest area that the community has been conserving and protecting to make use of its resources. Hence statement 1 is correct
· According to Section 2(a) of the Forest Rights Act, Community Forest Resource is the customary common forest land within the traditional or customary boundaries of the village or seasonal use of landscape in the case of pastoral communities, including reserved forests, protected forests and protected areas such as sanctuaries and national parks to which the community had traditional access. Hence statement 2 is correct
· The community forest resource area may include forest of any category i.e. revenue forest, classified and unclassified forest, deemed forest, reserve forest, protected forest, sanctuary and national parks etc.
What are Community Forest Resource Rights?
· The Forest Rights Act, 2006, gives Gram Sabhas the right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any forest resources used by the entire community, or village which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use.
· Section 5 of the Act empowers the holders of forest rights, the Gram Sabha, and village level institutions to protect forests, water catchment areas, biodiversity and ensure that the habitat of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers is preserved from any form of destructive practices affecting their cultural and natural heritage.
5. Consider the following statements
1) India is the world’s second-largest producer of footwear and leather garments after China.
2) Indian Footwear and Leather Development Programme is a Central sector scheme aimed at developing infrastructure for the leather sector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Indian Footwear and Leather Development Programme (IFLDP) approved for continuation with an outlay of Rs. 1700 Crore
· The IFLADP was announced with a budget of Rs. 2,600 crore for three financial years spanning from 2017-18 to 2019-20.
· India is the world’s second-largest producer of footwear and leather garments after China, as well as the world’s second-largest exporter of leather garments (after China). Hence statement 1 is correct
· The industry is well-known for its consistent high export earnings, and it is one of the country’s top 10 foreign exchange earners.
· India has access to 20 per cent of the world’s cattle and buffalo, as well as 11 per cent of the world’s goat and sheep populations.
· The leather industry is an employment-intensive industry that employs over 4 million people, the majority of whom come from weaker sections of society.
· Indian Footwear and Leather Development Programme(IFLDP) aims at development of infrastructure for the leather sector, address environmental concerns specific to the leather sector, facilitate additional investments, employment generation and increase in production. Hence statement 2 is correct
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1795797
6. Consider the following statements regarding Surety bond
1) They are primarily used in infrastructure development.
2) The insurance company provides a surety bond on behalf of the contractor to the entity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:
The government allowed the use of surety insurance bonds in place of bank guarantees for government procurement and gold imports in Budget 2022-23.
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has recently issued final guidelines to ensure the orderly development of India’s surety insurance business.
What is meant by a surety bond?
· It is a legally binding contract between three parties: the principal, the obligee, and the surety.
· The obligee, who is usually a government entity, requires the principal, who is usually a business owner or contractor, to procure a surety bond as a guarantee against future work performance.
· Surety bonds are primarily used in infrastructure development to lower indirect costs for suppliers and work contractors, diversifying their options and acting as a substitute for bank guarantees. Hence statement 1 is correct
· The insurance company provides a surety bond on behalf of the contractor to the entity awarding the project. Hence statement 2 is correct
· Surety bonds safeguard the beneficiary from acts or events that impair the principal’s underlying obligations. They guarantee the performance of a wide range of obligations, from construction and service contracts to licensing and commercial undertakings.
· According to new guidelines, insurance companies can now issue the much-anticipated surety bonds.
· According to the regulator, the premium charged for all surety insurance policies underwritten in a financial year, including all installments payable in following years for those policies, should not exceed 10% of the total gross written premium for that year, up to a maximum of Rs 500 crore.
· According to the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), insurers can offer contract bonds, which assure the public entity, developers, subcontractors, and suppliers that the contractor will fulfill its contractual obligations when undertaking the project.
7. Consider the following statements regarding Post Devolution Revenue Deficit grant
1) The union government provides this grant to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution.
2) These grants are released as per the recommendations of the NITI Aayog.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Centre releases revenue deficit grant of 9,871 cr to 17 states
· The Ministry of Finance on Friday released monthly Post Devolution Revenue Deficit (PDRD) grant of ₹9,871 crore to 17 States.
· This was the 11th instalment of the PDRD grant released to the States.
· The Fifteenth Finance Commission has recommended a total Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grant of 1,18,452 crore rupees to 17 States in the financial year 2021-22.
The Finance Commission Grants are primarily divided into four sub-heads
· Grants for rural local bodies
· Grants for urban local bodies
· Assistance to SDRF
· Post devolution revenue deficit grants
About Post devolution revenue deficit grants
· The Center provides the Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grant to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct
· The grants are released as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission in monthly installments to meet the gap in Revenue Accounts of the States post-devolution. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
· The 15th Finance Commission has recommended PDRD grants amounting to about Rs. 3 trillion over the five-year period ending FY26.
· The number of states qualifying for the revenue deficit grants decreased from 17 in FY22, the first year of the award period to 6 in FY26, the last year.
· The eligibility of States to receive this grant and the quantum of grant was decided by the Commission based on the gap between assessment of revenue and expenditure of the State
8. Consider the following statements regarding Joint Statement Initiative
1) They are a negotiating tool initiated by a group of WTO Members
2) It aims to initiate forward-looking, results-oriented negotiations or discussions on issues of increasing relevance to the world trading system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Notes for India as the digital trade juggernaut rolls on
· Despite the cancellation of the Twelfth Ministerial Conference (MC12) of the World Trade Organization (WTO) late last year (scheduled date, November 30, 2021-December 3, 2021) due to COVID-19, digital trade negotiations continue their ambitious march forward.
About Joint Statement Initiative
· JSIs are a negotiating tool initiated by a group of WTO Members who seek to advance discussions on certain specific issues without adhering to the rule of consensus decision-making involving the whole WTO membership. Hence statement 1 is correct
· It aim was to initiate forward-looking, results-oriented negotiations or discussions on issues of increasing relevance to the world trading system. Hence statement 2 is correct
· The JSIs are open to all WTO Members and seek the participation of as many Members as possible.
· These negotiations are primarily driven by like-minded developed country Members, although there is also some participation from developing countries.
· JSI Members seek to tap into opportunities in sectors with limited WTO jurisprudence
· A group of 71 WTO members agreed at the 11th Ministerial Conference in December 2017 to initiate exploratory work towards future WTO negotiations on trade-related aspects of e-commerce
9. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
1) It is a maternity benefit program that came into force in all districts of the country.
2) It provides Rs.5,000 for the birth of the first child to partially compensate a woman for the loss of wages.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Universalise maternity benefit scheme, say activists
· Government has announced that Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana(PMMVY) will be extended to cover the second child only if it is a girl. This announcement has met with criticism from activists who have demanded that it be universalised.
About Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
· The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), launched in 2017, provides ₹5,000 for the birth of the first child to partially compensate a woman for the loss of wages. Hence statement 2 is correct
· It is a maternity benefit program that came into force in all districts of the country. Hence statement 1 is correct
· The amount is given in three instalments upon meeting certain conditions.
· It is combined with another scheme, Janani Suraksha Yojana, under which nearly ₹1,000 is given for an institutional birth.
· All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW & LM), barring those in regular employment with the Central Government, State Governments, or Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), or those receiving similar benefits under any law currently in force.
· All pregnant women and lactating mothers who became pregnant on or after January 1, 2017, for the first child in the family are eligible.
10. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate.
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects
Answer: (b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
Explanation:
· It is a situation which is characterized by negative growth rate of GDP in two successive quarters. Some of the indicators of a recession include slowdown in the economy, fall in investments, fall in the output of the economy etc. If an economy experiences a recession and GDP falls, tax revenues fall because firms and households pay lower taxes when they earn less.
· It is prudent for government as well as central bank to follow Expansionary fiscal and monetary policy respectively to stimulate the economy, but keeping in mind the inflationary pressure.
· In all the given optionsCut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate- Increase in interest rate results into credit crunch in the economy which is not desirable at the time of recession.
· Reduction of expenditure on public projects- It is not desirable at the time of recession as it will lead to less government expenditure thereby not contributing much to output. Hence (b) is the correct answer.
