Consider the following statements regarding Khadi Prakritik:
- It is India’s first and only paint made from cow dung.
- It has eco-friendly, antibacterial properties and is free from heavy metals like lead, mercury, chromium, arsenic, cadmium.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Nitin Gadkari to promote Khadi Prakritik, India’s first paint made from Cow Dung
- Union MSME Minister Nitin Gadkari said he would be the brand ambassador of Khadi Prakritik Paint and would promote it across the country so as to encourage young entrepreneurs to take up the manufacturing of the cow dung paint. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- Currently, the daily production of the paint is 500 litres which will go up to 1,000 litres per day
- The new plant has been set up in the campus of Kumarappa National Handmade Paper Institute, Jaipur.
About Khadi Prakritik Paint:
- It is an eco-friendly, non-toxic paint with anti-fungal, antibacterial Based on cow dung as its main ingredient, the paint is cost-effective and odourless, and has been certified by the Bureau of Indian Standards. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- The paint is free from heavy metals like lead, mercury, chromium, arsenic, cadmium and others.
- It will be a boost to local manufacturing and will create sustainable local employment through technology transfer.
- This technology will increase the consumption of cow dung as a raw material for eco-friendly products and will generate additional revenue to farmers and gaushalas.
- This is estimated to generate additional income of Rs 30,000 (approx.) per annum per animal to farmers/gaushalas.
- Utilization of cow dung will also clean the environment and prevent clogging of drains.
With respect to appointment of governor, consider the following statements:
- The nomination of a governor by the Union government and his appointment by the President.
- It is based on the USA model of government.
- The appointment and powers of government can be derived from Part VI of the Indian constitution.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Eight states get new governors. Thawarch and Gehlot in the list
Eight states, including Karnataka and Haryana among others, on Tuesday, got new governors as President Ram Nath Kovind made several appointments and changes
About Governor’s appointment:
- The Governor’s appointment, his powers and everything related to the office of Governor have been discussed under Article 153 to Article 162 of the Indian Constitution. Hence statement (3) is correct.
- The Indian President appoints Governor for each
- state by warrant under his hand and seal. The Central Government is responsible to nominate the governor for each state. Hence statement (1) is correct
- Unlike elections for President, there is no direct or indirect election for the post of Governor.
- The office of a governor is not a part of the union executive and is an independent constitutional office. The governor doesn’t serve the union government and neither is subordinate to it.
- It is based on the Canadian model of government. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
- The Governor holds the office under the pleasure of the President, his office has no fixed term. The President can remove the Governor and the grounds upon which he may be removed are not laid down in the constitution.
- Governors may also get transferred from one state to another by the President. He/she also can be reappointed.
- Governor has to meet only two qualifications:
- He should be an Indian Citizen
- He should be 35 years old or more
Agricultural Outlook 2021-2030 is released by which of the following international organisations?
a) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development and Food and Agriculture Organization
b) World Food Programme and World Bank
c) International Fund for Agricultural Development
d) International Rice Research Institute
Answer: (a) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development and Food and Agriculture Organization
Explanation:
In NEWS: Gap between countries on animal protein consumption to widen by 2030: Report
- The gap between high-, middle- and low-income countries on the per capita consumption of animal protein (meat, fish, dairy, eggs) in the next decade is expected to increase
- Per capita availability of animal protein in high-income countries is expected to grow slowly over the coming decade (1.8 grams per person per day, or three per cent), according to the report.
- OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook 2021-2030, the report is a collaborative effort of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development and the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Hence option (a) is correct.
- The demand for beef is already declining in the developed world. According to the report, most countries and regions like Canada, Australia and the European Union, with high per capita consumption of beef, will see these levels declining.
- Per capita consumption of pig meat in the European Union and of both pig meat and sheep meat in Australia, are also projected to decline, as consumers switch to cheaper and healthier alternatives, mostly poultry.
- In middle-income countries, per capita availability of animal protein is projected to increase by 11 per cent.
- Low-income countries will have low per capita availability of animal protein, averaging 13.8 grams per person per day in 2018-20. Over the coming decade, these levels are not expected to increase significantly (0.2 grams per person per day)
- The largest decline is expected for fish, as population growth is projected to outpace the expansion in fish supply.
- These developments will contribute to widen the gap in animal protein consumption between low-income countries and middle and high-income countries over the coming decade.
Consider the following statements regarding Diamond:
- Diamond occurs primarily in sedimentary rocks.
- Madhya Pradesh has the largest diamond reserve in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Buxwaha diamond mining project will make Bundelkhand’s water scarcity worse: Experts
- The proposed diamond mine in the Buxwaha protected forest region in Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh may have a greater ecological impact on the region than projected so far.
- The project threatens to further deplete the already scarce water reserve of the drought-prone Bundelkhand region to excavate about five million tonnes of diamond-bearing kimberlite ore per annum.
- Diamond mining is a water-intensive process.
About Diamond
- Diamond has been the most valuable among gems for more than 2,000 years. Diamond is the hardest naturally occurring substance found on Earth.
- Diamond occurs in two types of depositsprimarily in igneous rocks of basic or ultrabasic composition and in alluvial deposits derived from the primary sources. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
- Diamonds are formed in the mantle.They brought to the earth’s crust due to volcanism. Most of the diamonds occur in dykes, sill, etc.
- Its composition is pure carbon and has a cubic crystal system and common form octahedron.
- India is known for its diamond cutting & polishing business, especially for small-sized diamonds.
Diamond Distribution in India
- Reserves have been estimated only in the Panna belt and Krishna Gravels in Andhra Pradesh.
- The new kimberlite fields were discovered recently in the Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka.
- Madhya Pradesh accounts for about 90.18% of resources followed by Andhra Pradesh 5.72% and Chhattisgarh 4.09%. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- In India, there is only one mine at Mazgaon in Panna (Madhya Pradesh) of NMDC for a production capacity of 84,000 carats and the total diamonds recovered from this mine so far are little more than 1 million carats.
Presently, the diamond fields of India are grouped into four regions:
- South Indian tract of Andhra Pradesh, comprising parts of Anantapur, Kadapa, Guntur, Krishna, Mahabubnagar, and Kurnool districts;
- Central Indian tract of Madhya Pradesh, comprising Panna belt;
- Behradin-Kodavali area in Raipur district and Tokapal, Dugapal, etc. areas in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh; and
- Eastern Indian tract mostly of Odisha, lying between Mahanadi and Godavari valleys.
Consider the following statements regarding Black Panther:
- They are found only in the forests of the Western Ghats.
- It is listed as Endangeredunder the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is protected in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Maharashtra: Black leopard sighted in Navegaon Nagzira Reserve
- The picture of the rare leopard with a normally coloured leopard in the background went viral after it was shared by Dr Bilal Habib, a scientist at WII from his twitter handle.
- A RARE melanistic leopard, popularly called black leopard, was spotted in the Navegaon block of the Navegaon Nagzira Tiger Reserve (NNTR) in the Gondia district of Maharashtra.
About Black Panther:
- Melanistic leopards are commonly called black panthers or black leopards.
- The black color variants of cats like leopards, jaguars and ocelots are known by experts as melanism. Melanism is a genetic condition in which an animal overproduces melanin, the dark colour pigment in skin or fur.
- The Black coat coloration is attributed to the expression of recessive alleles in leopards and dominant alleles in jaguars.
- They are found in the forests of the Western Ghats and north-east India and are black in colour due to the presence of excess melanin in their bodies. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
- The colour of their fur is a mixture of blue, black, grey and purple.
- It is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
- It is protected in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement (3) is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Matsya Setu:
- It aims to provide the latest freshwater aquaculture technologies to the aqua farmers of the country.
- It is an online course app developed by the ICAR-Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Shri Giriraj Singh launches the Online Course Mobile App “Matsya Setu” for Fish Farmers.
- Matsya Setu is an online course app. It aims to provide the latest freshwater aquaculture technologies to the aqua farmers of the country. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- The app was developed by the ICAR-Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture (ICAR-CIFA), Bhubaneswar. The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB), Hyderabad is providing the funding support. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- The app has species-wise/ subject-wise self-learning online course modules. Where aquaculture experts explain the basic concepts like breeding, seed production, grow-out culture of commercially important fishes, and also better management practices.
- Moreover, upon successful completion of each course module, an e-Certificate can be auto-generated.
- Further, farmers can also ask their doubts through the app and get specific advisories from experts.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1733198
Consider the following statements regarding Bhalia Wheat:
- It is GI certified wheat grown in Madhya Pradesh.
- It is grown in the rainfed condition without irrigation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: GI certified Bhalia wheat from Gujarat shipped to Kenya, Lanka
- The first shipment of Geographical Indication (GI) certified Bhalia variety of wheat was exported on to Kenya and Sri Lanka from Gujarat.
- In a major boost to wheat exports, the first shipment of Geographical Indication (GI) certified Bhalia variety of wheat
- The GI certified wheat has high protein content and is sweet in taste.
- The crop is grown mostly across the Bhal region of Gujarat which includes Ahmedabad, Anand, Kheda, Bhavanagar, Surendranagar, Bharuch districts.
- The unique characteristic of the wheat variety is that it is grown in the rainfed condition without irrigation and cultivated in around two lakh hectares of agricultural land in Gujarat.The Bhalia variety of wheat received GI certification in July, 2011. Hence statement (1) is incorrect and statement (2) is correct.
Source: TH
Consider the following statements regarding Pegasus:
- It is a spyware developed by the US cyber arms firm NSO Group Technologies.
- It mainly uses exploit links, clicking on which installs Pegasus on the target’s phone.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: New online platform maps Pegasus spread
- An online database about the use of the spyware Pegasus was recently launched by Forensic Architecture, Amnesty International and the Citizen Lab to document attacks against human rights defenders.
- It was launched by Forensic Architecture, Amnesty International and the Citizen Lab to document attacks against human rights defenders.
About Pegasus.
- It is a spyware developed by the Israeli cyber arms firm NSO Group Technologies. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
- It mainly uses exploit links, clicking on which installs Pegasus on the target’s phone. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- Citizen Lab which has investigated several cases of Pegasus infections showed through its research that social engineering is a very common strategy to deliver the most sophisticated spyware.
- Pegasus does so by exploiting vulnerabilities in the phone’s operating systems (OS).
- Lookout, which is a cybersecurity company, had partnered with Citizen Lab to investigate Pegasus and found that it had exploited three zero-day vulnerabilities in iOS to successfully attain all the user access of the phone.
- In WhatsApp case, a specially crafted call was used to trigger a buffer overflow, which in turn was used to take control of the device.
- Pegasus is state-of-the-art spyware and NSO charges an exorbitant sum for its product and services.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/new-online-platform-maps-pegasus-spread/article35185350.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Authorized Economic Operators (AEO):
- It is a programme under the aegis of the World Customs Organization (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards to secure and facilitate global trade.
- It aims to enhance international supply chain security and facilitate the movement of goods.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Launch of online filing of application for Authorised Economic Operators (AEO T2 and AEO T3)
- Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC) Chairman Shri M. Ajit Kumar here today inaugurated the online filing of Authorised Economic Operators (AEO) T2 and T3 applications.
- The new version (V 2.0) of the web application is designed to ensure continuous real-time and digital monitoring of physically filed AEO T2 and AEO T3 applications for timely intervention and expedience.
About Authorized Economic Operators (AEO)
- AEO is a programme (2007) under the aegis of the World Customs Organization (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards to secure and facilitate global trade. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- It aims to enhance international supply chain security and facilitate the movement of goods. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- Under this, an entity engaged in international trade is approved by WCO as compliant with supply chain security standards and granted AEO status.
- An entity with an AEO status is considered a ‘secure’ trader and a reliable trading partner.
- Benefits of AEO status include expedited clearance times, fewer examinations, improved security and communication between supply chain partners.
- AEO is a voluntary programme.
Indian AEO Programme:
- The AEO Programme was introduced as a pilot project in 2011.
- The security standards detailed in WCO SAFE Framework are the basis of the Indian AEO programme.
- There is a three tier AEO Status for Exporters and Importers. The three tiers are AEO T1, AEO T2, AEO T3, where AEO T3 is the highest level of accreditation.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1733432
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
c) Impose censorship on the national
d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Answer: (c) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Explanation:
Butler committee of 1927:
- The Report of the Butler Committee on the relations between the Indian States and British India.
- The Committee advised that the Viceroy (instead of the Governor-General in Council) should represent the Crown in all dealings with the States.
- This proposed change is comparable with the new Imperial arrangement by which the Governor-General of a Dominion is High Commissioner for the Dominion’s Protectorates.
- The Committee sympathizes with the fear of the Native Princes that their States might pass without their consent under a new Government in British India responsible to an Indian Legislature, and they plainly express the opinion that no such transfer should be made without the consent of the Princes. Hence option (c) is correct
