1. With respect to Industrial Parks, Consider the following statements
1) It is a section of the city that has been designated, planned, and zoned for industrial development rather than residential need
2) It should have at least ten industrial units in the area of 20 hectares.
Which of the statments given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:IPRS: 27 industrial parks nominated by Maharashtra assessed as ‘leaders’
· The second edition of the Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) Report, prepared by the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, was launched by the Minister of State for Commerce and Industry
· The IPRS exercise was launched in 2018 to enhance industrial infrastructure competitiveness and support policy development to spur industrialisation.
· Across the country, 399 industrial parks and 50 Special Economic Zones were assessed on 45 parameters based on nominations
What are Industrial Parks?
· An industrial park is a section of the city that has been designated, planned, and zoned for industrial development rather than residential or commercial needs. Hence statement 1 is correct
· The parks might include companies that provide manufacturing, transportation, and storage facilities, such as chemical plants, airports, and beverage manufacturers.
· Some industrial parks offer tax incentives for businesses to locate there, such as tax increment financing.
· However, the industrial parks often create environmental issues, due to increased pollution and the potential for surrounding area to be damaged by contaminants.
Eligibility Criteria for Industrial Parks:
· Industrial Park should have at least ten industrial units in the area of 20 hectares.Hence statement 2 is correct
· It should possess minimum infrastructure facilities like road, electricity, water and sewage and effluent treatment facilities.
· It should use only 50% of the total area allocated for the industrial units.
· It should follow the guidelines of the nearest urban area development authority for common facilities, like road, common plot etc.
· The minimum percentage of the area allocated for industrial use should not exceed 65% of the total area.
· It should provide 5% of the total area for Industrial workers, and the other 5% of the total area should be reserved for an office building.
2. With respect to Conference on Disarmament, Consider the following statements
1) It is comprised of 65 member States
2) It is a multilateral disarmament forum established by the international community to negotiate arms control and disarmament agreements
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Deeply concerned over proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, their delivery systems: India at U.N
· At the conference, India expressed deep concern over the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction and their delivery systems that could endanger peace and security, saying the possibility of terrorists acquiring such weapons necessitates the global community to work together to address this grave danger.
· India has said that it supports the full and effective implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention and emphasises the strengthening of the OPCW (Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons) to fulfill its important mandate.
About Conference on Disarmament
· The Conference on Disarmament (CD) is a multilateral disarmament forum established by the international community to negotiate arms control and disarmament agreements based at the Palais des Nations in Geneva. The Conference meets annually in three separate sessions in Geneva.Hence statement 2 is correct
· The Conference was first established in 1979 as the Committee on Disarmament as the single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum of the international community.
· It was renamed the Conference on Disarmament in 1984.
· Formation: 1984.
· Membership: 65 Countries. Including five Non-Proliferation nuclear-weapon States and 60 other States of key military significance.Hence statement 1 is correct
3. Which of the following optionsare the sources of public debt in India?
1) Government securities (G-Secs)
2) Treasury bill
3) External assistance
4) Short-term borrowings
Select the correct options from the given below codes
a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 only
c) 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: How to make public debt sustainable
· In its recent research report, Morgan Stanley forecasted that India will be included in global bond indices in early 2022 and this will result in investment inflow of USD 170-250 billion into the Indian sovereign bond market during the next decade.
What is Public Debt?
· In the Indian context, public debt includes the total liabilities of the Union government that have to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of India.
· The Union government broadly classifies its liabilities into two broad categories.
· The debt contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India is defined as public debt and includes all other funds received outside Consolidated Fund of India under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution, where the government merely acts as a banker or custodian.
· The second type of liabilities is called public account.
· As per Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934, the Reserve Bank is both the banker and public debt manager for the Union government.
· The RBI handles all the money, remittances, foreign exchange and banking transactions on behalf of the Government.
· The Union government also deposits its cash balance with the RBI.
Sources of Public Debt
· Dated government securities or G-secs.
· Treasury Bills or T-bills
· External Assistance
· Short term borrowings
· Public Debt definition by Union Government. Hence option (d) is correct
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/how-to-make-public-debt-sustainable/article36844547.ece
4.Consider the following statements regarding Transfer of High Court Judges
1) Article 222 of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a Judge from one High Court to any other High Court
2) Consent of the Judge for his first or subsequent transfer would be required.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Law Ministry notifies transfer of 15 judges in 11 High Courts
· In a major shake up, the Law Ministry on Tuesday notified the transfers of 15 judges across 11 High Courts.
· The transfer orders, recommended by the Supreme Court collegium around a fortnight back
About Procedure of transfer of HC judge
· Article 222 of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a Judge (including Chief Justice) from one High Court to any other High Court. Hence statement 1 is correct
· The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a Judge should be made by the Chief Justice of India(CJI).
· The opinion of the CJI “is determinative”.
· Consent of the Judge for his first or subsequent transfer would not be required.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
· CJI is expected to take into account the views of the Chief Justice of the High Court from which the Judge is to be transferred and Chief Justice of the High Court to which the transfer is to be effected.
· The views of one or more Supreme Court Judges who are in a position to offer his/their views are also taken into account.
· In the case of transfer of a Chief Justice, only the views of one or more knowledgeable Supreme Court Judges need to be taken into account.
· The views on the proposed transfer of a Judge or a Chief Justice of the High Court should be expressed in writing and should be considered by the CJI and the four senior most Judges of the Supreme Court.
· The proposal once referred to the Government, the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would submit a recommendation to the Prime Minister who will then advise the President as to the transfer of the Judge concerned.
· After the President approves the transfer, the notification will be gazetted and the judge remains transferred.
5.With reference to Aadhar Enabled Payment System (AePS) , Consider the following statements:
1) It is a bank-led model which allows online interoperable financial inclusion transactions at Point of Sale
2) It is developed by National Payment Corporation of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:How loopholes in Aadhaar-enabled payments are putting poor people at risk of being swindled
· The government of India launched Aadhaar enabled Payment System which is coupled with the Business correspondent model. It was supposed to revitalize financial inclusion in India. However, it faces many challenges.
· AePS comes with serious risks of being cheated, especially those who lack clarity of its working. These risks are increased when banks refuse to disburse small amounts to their customers and send them to BCs instead
About AePS
· AePS is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) that allows people to carry out financial transactions on a Micro-ATM by furnishing just their Aadhaar number and verifying it with the help of their fingerprint/iris scan.Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct
· With the help of this payment system, funds can be transferred from one bank account to another simply through their Aadhaar numbers.
· This system adds another layer of security to financial transactions as bank details would no longer be required to be furnished while carrying out these transactions.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/aadhaar-enabled-payment-system-7552163/
6. Recently, the Senkaku islands is seen in the news, are a part of the territorial dispute between:
a) South Korea and North Korea
b) Japan and South Korea
c) China and Philippines
d) China and Japan
Answer: (d) China and Japan
Explanation:
In NEWS:Biden talks to Japan’s new prime minister Kishida. A ‘strong’ message for China
Newly appointed Japanese Prime Minister received a message from the President of United States’ commitment to defending the disputed East China Sea islets, known as the Senkaku Islands, Japan.Hence option (d) is correct
About The Senkaku Islands Dispute:
· China and Taiwan claim that the islands have been a part of Chinese territory since the 16th century.
· It states that the Chinese first discovered and named the islands Diaoyu Dao. The waters surrounding these islands have traditionally been Chinese fishing grounds for generations.
· The islands were used by the Ming Dynasty as a coastal defence against Japanese pirates.
· China argues that Japan stole the islands during the First Sino-Japanese War (25 July 1894 – 17 April 1895).
· They believe that the agreements signed between the United States and Japan on the Senkaku islands are illegal and a violation of China’s territorial sovereignty.
· The Japanese claim that when the island was surveyed by them in the 1800’s, it was uninhabited and showed no signs of Chinese occupation.
· China has been violating the islands boundaries by sending both military and fishing ships into the Senkaku waters, despite protests from the Japanese government.
7. Consider the following statements
1) Coral reefs are built by and made up of thousands of tiny animals coral polyps
2) Corals can survive only under saline conditions with an average salinity between 27% to 40%
3) Coral reefs grow better in shallow water having a depth less than 50 m
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Climate change: 14% coral reefs lost since 2010, says study
· Corals reefs occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor but over one billion people benefit from them
· In the last decade, the world lost about 14 per cent of its coral reefs, according to a new report.
· Ocean-acidification, warmer sea temperatures and local stressors such as overfishing, pollution, unsustainable tourism and poor coastal management pose a combined threat to the coral ecosystems
· Coral reefs across the world are under relentless stress from warming caused by climate change. Coral bleaching events caused by rise in elevated sea surface temperatures (SST) were responsible for coral loss
· The worst-hit are the corals in South Asia, Australia, the Pacific, East Asia, the Western Indian Ocean and the Gulf of Oman.
About Coral reefs
· Coral reefs are built by and made up of thousands of tiny animals—coral “polyps”—that are related to anemones and jellyfish.Hence statement 1 is correct
· Polyps are shallow water organisms which have a soft body covered by a calcareous skeleton. The polyps extract calcium salts from sea water to form these hard skeletons.
· Corals can survive only under saline conditions with an average salinity between 27% to 40%. Hence statement 2 is correct
· Coral reefs grow better in shallow water having a depth less than 50 m. The depth of the water should not exceed 200m.Hence statement 3 is correct
· Temperature: The most favourable temperature for the growth of the coral reefs is between 23°C to 25°C.
Coral reefs are divided into four classes:
· fringing reefs,
· barrier reefs,
· atolls, and
· patch reefs
8. Consider the following statements regarding Mosquirix
1) It is the first malaria vaccine approved by WHO
2) This vaccine acts against P. Falciparum is the most deadly malaria parasite globally
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Explained: What is Mosquirix, the first malaria vaccine to get the WHO’s backing?
· This is the first malaria vaccine that has completed the clinical development process, and received a positive scientific opinion from the European Medicines Agency (EMA).
· RTS,S/ASO1 (RTS.S), trade name Mosquirix, which was endorsed by the World Health Organisation is the first and, to date only, vaccine shown to have the capability of significantly reducing malaria, and life-threatening severe malaria, in tests on young African children.Hence statement 1 is correct
· The vaccine acts against P. falciparum, the most deadly malaria parasite globally, and the most prevalent in Africa. Hence statement 2 is correct
· It is also the first malaria vaccine to be introduced by three national ministries of health through their childhood immunization programmes — more than 800,000 children in Ghana, Kenya, and Malawi have been vaccinated, and are benefiting from the added protection provided by the vaccine as part of a pilot programme.
The global burden of malaria
· Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites that are transmitted to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. It is preventable and curable.
· Still, in 2019, there were an estimated 229 million cases of malaria worldwide, and the estimated number of malaria deaths that year stood at 409,000.
· Children aged under 5 years are the most vulnerable group affected by malaria; in 2019, they accounted for 67% (274,000) of all malaria deaths worldwide.
· In 2019, India had an estimated 5.6 million cases of malaria compared to about 20 million cases in 2020, according to WHO.
· WHO has recommended that in the context of comprehensive malaria control, the RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine be used for the prevention of P. falciparum malaria in children living in regions with moderate to high transmission as defined by it.
9. Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary often seen in news, is located at:
a) West Bengal
b) Tripura
c) Rajasthan
d) Chhattisgarh
Answer: (d) Chhattisgarh
Explanation:
In NEWS:Explained: India’s newest Tiger Reserve, No. 4 in Chhattisgarh
· National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) approved the Chhattisgarh government’s proposal to declare the combined areas of the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary as a Tiger Reserve. Hence option (d) is correct
· The new Reserve is located in the northern part of the state, bordering Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand. This will be the fourth Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh, after the Udanti-Sitanadi, Achanakmar, and Indravati Reserves.
· The proposal was considered by the 11th Technical Committee of the NTCA on September 1, and approval was granted a month later under Section 38V(1) of The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
· The Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary was identified as part of the Sarguja Jashpur Elephant Reserve in 2011. The Guru Ghasidas National Park used to be part of the Sanjay National Park in undivided Madhya Pradesh.
· Guru Ghasidas National Park is in Koriya district; Tamor Pingla is in Surajpur district in the northwestern corner of Chhattisgarh.
· Guru Ghasidas National Park was the last known habitat of the Asiatic cheetah in the country. Originally part of the Sanjay Dubri National Park, Guru Ghasidas Park was created as a separate entity in Chhattisgarh’s Sarguja region after the formation of the state in 2001.
10. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1) The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2) The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Value of the vote is determined in the following manner:
Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a state shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the state by the total number of the elected members of the assembly. (Hence, it varies according to population of state.)
Every elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to members of the legislative assemblies of the states by the total number of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. Hence, the correct answer is (a).
