Consider the following Statements regarding Leadership Group on Industry Transition
It is a global public-private effort to reaching net zero carbon emissions from industry by 2030.
India is a part of this group.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India moving ahead on Paris agreement’
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Friday held a virtual bilateral summit with his Swedish counterpart Stefan Lofven where the two leaders discussed a host of issues.
- India and Sweden can deepen their partnership in several sectors, including smart cities, e-mobility, smart grids and waste management, as also on key priority areas like the important issue of climate change
- The two countries issued a Joint Statement and agreed to continue their outreach to expand the membership of the Leadership Group on Industry Transition. They also agreed that Indo-Swedish Joint Commission on Economic, Industrial and Scientific Cooperation will present proposals under the Joint Action Plan and Joint Innovation Partnership on further cooperation in innovation, health, and green recovery
About Leadership Group on Industry Transition
- The Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT) gathers countries and companies that are committed to reaching net zero carbon emissions from industry by 2050. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a global public-private effort to ensure heavy industries and mobility companies can find a workable pathway to deliver on the Paris Agreement
- This initiative was announced by India and Sweden together with Argentina, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, South Korea and the UK, as well as a group of companies including Dalmia Cement, DSM, Heathrow Airport, Mahindra Group etc. Hence statement 2 is correct
- This initiative will be supported by the World Economic Forum, the Energy Transitions Commission, Mission Innovation, Stockholm Environment Institute, and the European Climate Foundation among many others.
Consider the following Statements regarding National School of Drama
- It is one of the foremost theatre training institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India.
- It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi and was registered as an autonomous organization under the Societies Registration Act of 1860
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Government actively considering Institute of National Importance tag for National School of Drama
- The government is actively considering giving the Institute of National Importance tag to the National School of Drama, as well as re-developing its campus in Delhi
- The status of Institute of National Importance would further strengthen the NSD, allowing it to award degrees, start new courses and set up new centers.
- NSD would participate in the celebrations of 75 years of Indian Independence.
About NSD
- The National School of Drama is one of the foremost theatre training institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959. In 1975, it became an independent entity and was registered as an autonomous organization under the Societies Registration Act of 1860, fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Training in the School is highly intensive and is based on a thorough, comprehensive, carefully planned syllabus which covers every aspect of theatre and in which theory is related to practice. As a part of their training, students are required to produce plays which are then performed before the public.
- Under the school, the syllabus takes into account the methods of great theatre personalities who have shaped contemporary theatre in all its variety.
- The systematic study and practical performing experience of Sanskrit drama, modern Indian drama, traditional Indian theatre forms, Asian drama and western dramatic protocols give the students a solid grounding and a wide perspective in the art of theatre.
- Besides its 3-year training programme, the School has also explored new vistas in the areas of children’s theatre and decentralization of theatre training through workshops under the Extension Programme.
- The School has two performing wings, which includes;
- The Repertory Company and
- Theatre-in-Education Company.
In which state Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is located?
New Delhi
Gujarat
Maharashtra
Rajasthan
Answer: (a) New Delhi
Explanation:
In NEWS: Panel to look into proposal on dumping inert waste in Bhatti mines
- An expert panel to study a proposal made by the South MCD for dumping “inert material” in Bhatti mines at Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary. The committee will get a month to assess the proposal and submit a report to the Board.
- Inert waste is waste which is neither biologically nor chemically reactive and is waste which will not decompose or decompose very slowly.
- Inert waste includes, but is not limited to: construction and demolition material such as metal, wood, bricks, masonry and cement concrete; asphalt concrete; metal; tree branches; bottom ash from coal fired boilers; and waste coal fines from air pollution control equipment.
- These wastes usually don’t pose a threat to the environment, or the health of animals or other people and will not endanger the quality of watercourses.
About Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary:
- Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary covering 32.71 sq km area lies on the Southern Delhi Ridge of Aravalli hill range, one of the oldest mountain systems of the world, on Delhi-Haryana border. Hence option (a) is correct
- An area of 1km around the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary in Gurugram and Faridabad is an Eco-sensitive zone
- This protected area contains one of the last surviving remnants of Delhi Ridge hill range and its semi-arid forest habitat and its dependent wildlife
Consider the following Statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India
- It was introduced by amending the Citizenship Act, 1955 in August 2005 in response to demands for dual citizenship by the Indian diaspora.
- If an individual is registered as an OCI for a period of two years, he/she are eligible to apply for Indian citizenship.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Only NRI quota seats based on entrance exams for OCI cardholders: MHA
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has reiterated through a gazette notification that Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) cardholders can lay claim to “only NRI (Non Resident Indian) quota seats” in educational institutions based on all-India entrance tests such as National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET), Joint Entrance Examination (Mains), Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) or other such all-India professional tests.
- The notification also reproduced a part of the guidelines issued by the Ministry on November 15, 2019 regarding benefits to OCI cardholders, which said that OCIs are not entitled to undertake any “missionary, mountaineering, journalism and tabligh activities” without prior permission of the Government of India. The notification provides legal teeth to the guidelines.
About Overseas Citizens of India
- The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme was introduced by amending the Citizenship Act, 1955 in August 2005 in response to demands for dual citizenship by the Indian diaspora, particularly in developed countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The MHA defines an OCI as a person who was a citizen of India on or after January 26, 1950; or was eligible to become a citizen of India on that date; or who is a child or grandchild of such a person, among other eligibility criteria.
- According to Section 7A of the OCI card rules, an applicant is not eligible for the OCI card if he, his parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.
- It was launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad in 2006.
- OCI card was introduced for fulfilling the demands for dual citizenship among the Indians living in different developed countries
- OCI cardholders can enter India multiple times, get a multipurpose lifelong visa to visit India, and are exempt from registering with Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) no matter how long their stay.
- If an individual is registered as an OCI for a period of five years, he/she are eligible to apply for Indian citizenship. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- At all Indian international airports, OCI cardholders are provided with special immigration counters.
- OCI cardholders can open special bank accounts in India, they can buy non-farm property and exercise ownership rights and can also apply for a driver’s license and PAN card.
- OCI cardholders do not get voting rights, cannot hold a government job and purchase agricultural or farm land.
- They cannot run for public office either, nor can they travel to restricted areas without government permission.
Which of the following countries is/are not a part of OPEC+?
India
Mexico
Oman
Russia
South Sudan
Select the correct option from the given below codes
- 1,2,3 and 4 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 3,4 and 5 only
- 2,3,4 and 5 only
Answer: (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: ‘OPEC+ move to hit recovery’
- India, the world’s third-biggest oil importer, on Friday said the decision by major producers to continue with output cuts as prices move higher could threaten the consumption led-recovery in some countries.
- The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and its allies, a group known as OPEC+, agreed on Thursday not to increase supply in April as they await a more substantial recovery in demand amid the COVID-19 pandemic. Crude prices rose after the announcement and are up 33% this year.
- Brent crude futures for May on Friday rose to $67.44 a barrel, and are on track for an almost 2% gain this week.
- India imports about 84% of its oil and relies on West Asian supplies to meet over three-fifths of its demand.
About Opec+
- Opec+ refers to the alliance of crude producers, who have been undertaking corrections in supply in the oil markets since 2017.
- OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan. Hence option (d) is correct
- The Opec and non-Opec producers first formed the alliance at a historic meeting in Algiers in 2016.
- The aim was to undertake production restrictions to help resuscitate a flailing market.
- OPEC’s 14 members control 35 percent of global oil supplies and 82 percent of proven reserves. With the addition of the 10 Non-OPEC nations, notable among them Russia, Mexico and Kazakhstan, those shares increase to 55 percent and 90 percent respectively.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/opec-move-to-hit-recovery/article34000058.ece
Consider the following Statements regarding Electronic voting machines
- It has been designed by the Election Commission in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronics Corporation of India Ltd.
- It can even be used in areas that have no electricity.
- It is designed with two units the control unit and the balloting unit
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2, and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: EVMs made a shaky start in a Kerala constituency in 1982
- The use of electronic voting machines (EVMs) in some booths of the Paravur Assembly constituency in Ernakulam, Kerala is etched in the electoral history as they were introduced in the constituency in the 1982 polling, a first in the country.
- The EVMs were introduced in 50 polling stations in the election in which the late A.C. Jose of the Congress and the late N. Sivan Pillai of the Communist Party of India were locked in a tight contest. The Congress candidate was defeated by a razor-thin margin of 123.
- Jose challenged the election of Sivan Pillai in the Kerala High Court, arguing that the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 did not empower the Election Commission to use EVMs. The High Court refused his plea.
About Electronic voting machines
- Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) introduced in India in 1982 allow the citizens to vote electronically and ease the job of the Election Commission of India in counting the votes
- It has been designed by the Election Commission in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Ltd, Bangalore, and Electronics Corporation of India Ltd, Hyderabad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- EVMs are electronic voting machines which enable the voter with a button for each choice of candidate. It is attached by a cable to an electronic ballot box.
- It comprises two units – control unit and balloting unit. They are connected by a 5-metre cable. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The EVM runs on a 6-volt single alkaline battery fixed in the control unit.
- It can even be used in areas that have no electricity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The control unit is with the Election Commission selected polling officer.
- The electronic voting machine came in India as a replacement to ballot papers and was first used in No. 70 Parvur assembly constituency in Kerala in 1982.
- In a large scale, the machines have been in use in India since 1999. The machines have been credited with making the voting process simpler, as now vote can be registered with just a click on the button.
Consider the following Statements regarding ShadowPad
- It is a backdoor Trojan malware
- It steals data from a ‘victim’ computer and is able to automatically communicate with the computer servers at the hacker’s end.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: ‘Red Echo’ over India
- Maharashtra Power Minister Nitin Raut announced that a State Cyber Cell probe had found 14 Trojan horses in the servers of the Maharashtra State Electricity Transmission Company.
- These malwares had the potential to disrupt power distribution in the State. The announcement came in the wake of a report from Recorded Future, a U.S.-based cybersecurity firm, stating that a group linked to the Chinese government, which it called ‘Red Echo’, had targeted 10 vital nodes in India’s power distribution system and two seaports.
How did Recorded Future track malware in Indian systems?
- Recorded Future did not look directly into the servers of India’s power system. Instead, it found a large number of IP addresses linked to critical Indian systems communicating for months with AXIOMATICASYMPTOTE servers connected to Red Echo. These servers had domains spoofing those of Indian power sector entities configured to them. For example, it had an ‘ntpc-co.com’ domain, which spoofs the original ntpc.co.in. AXIOMATICASYMPTOTE servers act as command-and-control centres for a malware known as ShadowPad.
About ShadowPad
- ShadowPad was discovered in 2017. The malware had been injected into software updates provided by a legitimate software provider, NetSarang, that is headquartered in the US and South Korea. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- According to cybersecurity and antivirus provider Kaspersky, NetSarang was not aware that its supply chain had been compromised and its software updates were carrying the malicious code.
- The ShadowPad malware steals data from a ‘victim’ computer and is able to automatically communicate with the computer servers at the hacker’s end. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Once every eight hours, ShadowPad sends back information like user name, domain name, host name to the hacker’s computer system.
- When an “interesting” target is found, the hacker’s computer server can seek more information from the victim system via the malware and even deploy more malicious code.
- The 2017 ShadowPad hack was attributed to ‘APT41’, the Recorded Future report said.
- APT41 is a prolific cyber threat group that carries out “Chinese state-sponsored espionage activity” apart from financially motivated activity “potentially outside of state control”, according to cybersecurity firm FireEye.
Source: TH
The term Five twos revolution is seen in news, it is related to the affairs of:
- Myanmar
- Bhutan
- Bangladesh
- India
Answer: (a) Myanmar
Explanation:
In NEWS: Escalating violence ups pressure for Myanmar sanctions
- The escalation of violence in Myanmar as authorities crack down on protests against the Feb. 1 coup is raising pressure for more sanctions against the junta, even as countries struggle over how to best sway military leaders inured to global condemnation. Hence option (a) is correct
- The challenge is made doubly difficult by fears of harming ordinary citizens who were already suffering from an economic slump worsened by the pandemic but is braving risks of arrest and injury to voice outrage over the military takeover.
- The U.N. special envoy urged the Security Council to act to quell junta violence that this week killed about 50 demonstrators and injured scores more.
- Activists had called for mass demonstrations a protest that has been referred to as the “five twos revolution”, a reference to the date, 22.2.2021. Protesters have compared the date to 8 August 1988 – or 8.8.88 – when pro-democracy demonstrations challenged military rule, but were brutally crushed by the army.
- One idea gaining support is to prevent the junta from accessing vital oil and gas revenues paid into and held in banks outside the country, Chris Sidoti, a former member of the U.N. Independent International Fact-Finding Mission on Myanmar
- Oil and gas are Myanmar’s biggest exports and a crucial source of foreign exchange needed to pay for imports. The country’s $1.4 billion oil and gas and mining industries account for more than a third of exports and a large share of tax revenue.
Consider the following Statements regarding Surcharge
- It becomes part of the public accounts of India
- It is a part of division pool of taxes as given in Article 271 of the Indian constitution
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Cess, surcharge shares doubled to 19.9% in FY 20-21: Report
- Under the existing Finance Commission (FC) framework, the cesses and surcharges collected by the Centre are not part of the tax devolution
- The key reason for higher growth in grants-in-aid and lower growth in tax devolution to the states is the increase in the proportion of the central cess and surcharges as they are not part of the tax devolution to the states
- The key reason for higher growth in grants-in-aid and lower growth in tax devolution to the states is the increase in the proportion of the central cess and surcharges as they are not part of the tax devolution to the states
About Surcharge
- Surcharge is a charge on any tax, charged on the tax already paid.
- The main surcharges are on personal income tax (on high income slabs and on super rich) and on corporate income tax.
- From the revenue side, surcharges are important as around 35% of all cesses and surcharges comes from the surcharge on direct taxes.
- A common feature of both surcharge and cess is that the centre need not share it with states.
- Goes to Consolidate fund of India and can be spent for any purpose. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Under the existing Finance Commission (FC) framework, the cesses and surcharges collected by the Centre are not part of the tax devolution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the first amendment in 1951 along with Article 31-B with a view to provide a “protective umbrella” to land reforms laws to save them from being challenged in courts on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. The SC upheld the validity of Article 31-B and Parliament’s power to place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Supreme Court has said that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and that such laws do not enjoy a blanket protection. Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after the Keshwanand Bharti Judgment on April 24, 1973, when it propounded the “basic structure” doctrine, were open to challenge. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
