Consider the following statements regarding Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
- The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act
- This Act provides for the limitation period of 6 months beyond which no prosecution shall lie for any offences under this Act.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Change rules on confiscation of animals, SC tells Centre
- The 2017 rules allow a magistrate to forfeit the cattle of an owner facing trial under the Act and send them to infirmaries, gaushalas etc.
- The Supreme Court on Monday said that a provision in the 2017 rule notified by the Centre, allowing the confiscation of the animals of traders and transporters during the pendency of trials in cases under The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, is contrary to the latter’s provisions which allow such confiscation only in case of conviction. It asked the government to either change the rule or face a stay from the court
About the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960:
- The legislative intent of the Act is to “prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals”.
- The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act.Hence statement 1 is correct
- This Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals. The Act defines animals and different forms of animals.
- Discusses different forms of cruelty, exceptions, and killing of a suffering animal in case any cruelty has been committed against it, so as to relieve it from further suffering.
- Provides the guidelines relating to experimentation on animals for scientific purposes.
- The Act enshrines the provisions relating to the exhibition of the performing animals, and offences committed against the performing animals.
- This Act provides for the limitation period of 3 months beyond which no prosecution shall lie for any offences under this Act.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
Consider the following statements regarding Legal Entity Identifier
- It is a 20-digit unique code to identify parties to financial transactions worldwide.
- It will be introduced for payment transactions of Rs 50 crore and above by entities using RBI’s Real Time Gross Settlement and National Electronic Funds Transfer.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:RBI to introduce LEI for large-value transactions in RTGS/NEFT from April
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to introduce the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) system for all payment transactions of value ₹50 crore and above undertaken by entities (non-individuals) using the Reserve Bank-run Centralised Payment Systems with effect from April 1.Hence statement 2 is correct
- LEI was introduced in a phased manner in the over-the-counter derivative and non-derivative markets as well as for large corporate borrowers.
- In India, LEI can be obtained from Legal Entity Identifier India Ltd. (LEIL), which is also recognised as an issuer of LEI by the Reserve Bank under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
About Legal Entity Identifier
- LEI is a 20-digit unique code to identify parties to financial transactions worldwide.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is a global reference number that uniquely identifies every legal entity or structure that is party to a financial transaction, in any jurisdiction.
- LEI code has been conceived as key measure to improve quality and accuracy of financial data systems for better risk management post the global financial crisis.
- The LEI system was developed by G20 in response to inability of financial institutions to identify organisations uniquely, so that their financial transactions in different national jurisdictions can be fully tracked.
- The first LEIs were issued in December 2012.
- LEIL will assign LEIs to any legal identity including all intermediary institutions, banks, mutual funds, partnership companies, trusts, holdings, special purpose vehicles, asset management companies and all other institutions being parties to financial transactions.
- LEI will be assigned on application from the legal entity and after due validation of data.
Which of the following is the major aim of Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) recently created by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
- Creation of digital wallets
- Promotion of BHIM app
- Adoption of ‘Points of Sale’ machines
- All of the above
Answer: (c) Adoption of ‘Points of Sale’ machines
Explanation:
In NEWS:RBI operationalises payment infra development fund
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Tuesday announced the operationalisation of the payment infrastructure development fund (PIDF) scheme, which is intended to subsidise deployment of payment acceptance infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 centres, with a special focus on the north-eastern states of the country.Hence option © is correct
About payment infrastructure development fund (PIDF) scheme
- An advisory council (AC) under the chairmanship of RBI deputy governor BP Kanungo has been constituted for managing the PIDF. The fund will be operational for three years effective from January 1, 2021 and may be extended for two more years.
- RBI will make an initial contribution of ₹250 crores to the PIDF and the remaining half will be garnered from card-issuing banks.
- It is also in line with the RBI’s proposal to set up an Acceptance Development Fund which will be used to develop card acceptance infrastructure across small towns and cities.
- Payment methods that are not interoperable shall not be considered under the PIDF.
- The implementation of targets shall be monitored by the RBI with assistance of the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) and the Payments Council of India (PCI).
Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/economy/rbi-operationalises-payment-infra-development-fund/2165068/
Consider the following statements regarding Asian Waterbird Census
- It is a part of the International Waterbird Census
- In India, it is annually coordinated by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Wetlands International.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Asian Waterbird Census commences in A.P.
- The two-day Asian Waterbird Census-2020 commenced in Andhra Pradesh on Tuesday under the aegis of experts from the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), covering at least two dozen sites, including Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary, Kolleru Lake and Krishna Sanctuary.
About the Asian Waterbird Census:
- It is an integral part of the global waterbird monitoring programme known as the International Waterbird Census (IWC) coordinated by Wetlands International.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It runs in parallel with other regional programmes of the International Waterbird Census in Africa, Europe, West Asia, the Neotropics and the Caribbean.
- It was initiated in 1987 in the Indian subcontinent and has grown rapidly to cover major regions of Asia.
- In India, it is annually coordinated by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Wetlands International.Hence statement 2 is correct
- In this census, every January, volunteers across Asia and Australasia visit wetlands in their country and count waterbirds.
Objectives:
- To obtain information on an annual basis of waterbird populations at wetlands in the region during the non-breeding period of most species.
- To monitor on an annual basis the status and condition of wetlands
- To encourage greater interest in waterbirds and wetlands amongst citizens
Consider the following statements regarding UdyogMandhan
- It is a marathon of focused sector-specific webinars for promoting Quality and Productivity in Indian Industry.
- The webinar series comprising 45 sessions will cover various major sectors in manufacturing and services.
- The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Govt. of India is organizing ‘UdyogManthan’ in association with Quality Council of India, National Productivity Council
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In News: A MARATHON OF FOCUSED WEBINARS FOR PROMOTING QUALITY AND PRODUCTIVITY IN INDIAN INDUSTRY “UDYOG MANTHAN” BEGINS
- The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Govt. of India is organizing ‘UdyogManthan’ in association with Quality Council of India, National Productivity Council. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- UdyogManthan is a marathon of focused sector-specific webinars for promoting Quality and Productivity in Indian Industry. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is being held from January 4, 2021 to March 2, 2021.
- The webinar series comprising 45 sessions will cover various major sectors in manufacturing and services. UdyogManthan will identify challenges, opportunities; draw upon solutions and best practices. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Participants will include representatives from industry, testing and standardization bodies. The discussions will be live streamed on YouTube for all those interested in following the sessions.
Shaheen IX is a joint military exercise between which of the following countries?
- India and China
- China and Pakistan
- China and Nepal
- India and Bangladesh
Answer: a) India and China
Explanation:
In NEWS: China justifies its military exercise with Pakistan amid apprehensions about India’s Malabar exercise
- China has justified its ongoing joint air exercise “Shaheen-IX” with Pakistan, even though it had expressed apprehensions about India’s “Malabar exercise”. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
- China defended “Shaheen-IX” exercise with Pakistan air force as a routine arrangement, which experts believe is reflective of a larger strategic posture towards India.
Consider the following Statements
- Magneto-telluric (MT) is a geophysical method which uses natural time variation of the Earth’s magnetic and electric fields to understand geological (underground) structure and processes.
- These measurements are conducted across three major seismic sources, namely Mahendragarh-Dehradun Fault (MDF), Sohna Fault (SF) and Mathura Fault (MF)
- These measurements will ascertain the presence of fluid, which generally enhances the possibility of triggering of earthquakes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Earthquake monitoring and delineation of subsurface structures in Delhi region
- The National Capital Region of Delhi experienced 4 small earthquakes during April – August 2020. These earthquakes were followed by a dozen of micro-events (M<3.0) including, a few aftershocks.
- All these events were located by the National Seismological Network (NSN), being operated and maintained by National Seismological Centre (NCS), Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- Subsequently, NCS initiated the Magneto-telluric (MT), a geophysical survey over the Delhi region. This survey is carried out in collaboration with Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology (WIHG), Dehradun.
- Magneto-telluric (MT) is a geophysical method which uses natural time variation of the Earth’s magnetic and electric fields to understand geological (underground) structure and processes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- These measurements are conducted across three major seismic sources, namely Mahendragarh-Dehradun Fault (MDF), Sohna Fault (SF) and Mathura Fault (MF). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- These measurements will ascertain the presence of fluid, which generally enhances the possibility of triggering of earthquakes. Hence statement 3 is correct
- A geophysical survey, namely, Magneto-telluric (MT) is being conducted over the Delhi region.
Which of the following is the Nation’s first indigenously developed DNA vaccine candidate against COVID-19?
- ZyCoV -D
- Covishield
- Covaxin
- Sputnik
Answer: a) ZyCoV-D
Explanation:
In NEWS: DBT-BIRAC supported indigenously developed DNA Vaccine Candidate by ZydusCadila, approved for Phase III clinical trials
- The candidate has been supported by the National Biopharma Mission (NBM) under the aegis of BIRAC and the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
- ZydusCadila completed Phase-I/II clinical trials of this DNA Vaccine candidate, in India, in more than 1,000 participants and interim data indicated that the vaccine is safe and immunogenic when three doses were administered intradermally.
- Based on the recommendations of the Subject Expert Committee, which reviewed the interim data, the DCGI has accorded permission for conducting Phase-III clinical trial in 26,000 Indian participants.
- The Nation’s first indigenously developed DNA vaccine candidate against COVID-19, ZyCoV-D, by M/s ZydusCadila has been approved by Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), for conduct of the Phase III clinical trials. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1685838
Consider the following statements regarding Kochi – Mangaluru gas pipeline
- It is a 450 km long pipeline has been built by GAIL
- Laying of the pipeline was done through a special technique called Horizontal Directional Drilling method.
- The event marks an important milestone towards the creation of ‘One Nation One Gas Grid’
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In News: PM Modi to inaugurate Kochi-Mangaluru natural gas pipeline on January 5
- The 450 km long pipeline has been built by GAIL (India) Ltd. hence statement 1 is correct.
- It has transportation capacity of 12 Million Metric Standard Cubic Metres per day.
- It will carry natural gas from the Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) Regasification Terminal at Kochi (Kerala) to Mangaluru (Dakshina Kannada district, Karnataka), while passing through Ernakulam, Thrissur, Palakkad, Malappuram, Kozhikode, Kannur and Kasaragod districts.
- Laying of the pipeline was an engineering challenge as the route of the pipeline necessitated it to cross water bodies at more than 100 locations. This was done through a special technique called Horizontal Directional Drilling method. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The event marks an important milestone towards the creation of ‘One Nation One Gas Grid’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The pipeline will supply environment friendly and affordable fuel in the form of Piped Natural Gas (PNG) to households and Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) to the transportation sector.
- It will also supply Natural Gas to commercial and industrial units across the districts along the pipeline. Consumption of cleaner fuel will help in improving air quality by curbing air pollution.
The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to
- banking operations
- communications networking
- military strategies
- supply and demand of agricultural products
Answer: (a) banking operations
Explanation:
MSF came into effect from 9th May 2011. MSF scheme is provided by RBI by which the banks can borrow overnight upto 1 per cent of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) i.e. 1 per cent of the aggregate deposits and other liabilities of the banks.
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