Consider the following Statements regarding Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH Mk III)
- It is a three-ton class new generation single engine helicopter indigenously designed and developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
- It will replace the ageing fleet of Cheetah/Chetak helicopters operated by the Services.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In News: Hindustan Aeronautics hands over Advanced Light Helicopters to Indian Navy and Coast Guard
- State-run aerospace behemoth Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) said it has handed over three Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH Mk III) to the Indian Navy and two to Indian Coast Guard as part of its 16 helicopter contract at the ongoing Aero India.
About Light Utility Helicopter
- The LUH is a three-ton class new generation single engine helicopter indigenously designed and developed by Rotary Wing Research and Design Centre of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) with features suitable for operations in the diverse operating conditions unique to India. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- The LUH will replace the ageing fleet of Cheetah/Chetak helicopters operated by the Hence Statement 2 is correct
- The LUH is powered by a single turbo shaft engine Ardiden 1U from M/s.
- Safran Helicopter Engine (SHE), France with adequate power margins to accomplish high altitude missions in Himalayas with ease.
- The ALH Mk III is fitted with a state-of-the-art Glass cockpit and powerful Shakti engine, it said, adding that the contract involves integration of 19 major systems with the existing ALH MK III.
Consider the following Statements regarding Government Securities
- It is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments.
- In India, the Central and state Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities
- FPIs are allowed to participate in the G-Secs market
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In News: Retail investors to be able to buy G-Secs directly: RBI
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said it would allow retail investors to open gilt accounts with the central bank to invest in government securities directly and without the help of intermediaries
- The Central government and the Reserve Bank have taken several measures to encourage retail investment in government securities
- What are Government Securities?
- It is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- The government securities market is dominated by institutional investors like mutual funds, banks, insurance companies.
- In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
- G-Secs are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments because practically they carry no risk of default.
- G-Secs offer the maximum safety as they carry the Sovereign’s commitment for payment of interest and repayment of principal.
- G-Secs can be sold easily in the secondary market to meet cash requirements.
- FPIs are allowed to participate in the G-Secs market within the quantitative limits prescribed from time to time. Hence Statement 3 is correct
- The government securities are of two types:
- Short term popularly called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year;
- Long term generally called Government bonds or dated securities with an original maturity of one year or more.
Consider the following Statements regarding Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
- It was legislated to prevent dishonor to National symbols which shall include the Indian Constitution, National anthem and National Flag.
- President and Vice president are not liable for disqualification upon committing any violation of the constitution under this Act
- Comments expressing disapprobation or criticism of the Constitution or of the Indian National Flag are covered under this act
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In News: Explained: What is the law on draping Tricolour over body of a deceased
- Police in Uttar Pradesh’s Pilibhit district have booked the mother and brother of a farmer who had died during the farmers’ agitation in Delhi, under The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, after his body was allegedly draped in the national flag.
About The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
- The act was legislated to prevent dishonor to National symbols which shall include the Indian Constitution, National anthem and National Flag. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- The Act is in consonance to Article 51 (A)(a) of the Indian Constitution which lays down the fundamental duty to respect and abide constitution, national anthem and national flag.
- It extends to the whole of India.
- President, Vice president, Prime minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, etc are liable for disqualification upon committing any violation of the constitution under this Act read with sections 7 & 8k of Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
- Comments expressing disapprobation or criticism of the Constitution or of the Indian National Flag or of any measures of the Government with a view to obtain an amendment of the Constitution of India or an alteration of the Indian National Flag by lawful means do not constitute an offence under this section. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect
- Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 states that whoever in any public place or in any other place within public view burns, mutilates, defaces, defiles, disfigures, destroys, tramples upon or brings into contempt (whether by words, either spoken or written, or by acts) the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
- As per the Act, “disrespect to the Indian National Flag means and includes”, among other things, “using the Indian National Flag as a drapery in any form whatsoever except in State funerals or armed forces or other para-military forces funerals”
Recently seen in news, the Artificial energy island project is an initiative which of the following country?
China
Russia
Papua New Guinea
Denmark
Answer: (d) Denmark
Explanation:
In News: Explained: What is Denmark’s artificial energy island project?
- Denmark has already entered into agreements with the Netherlands, Germany and Belgium to begin the joint analysis of connections in the energy island. Hence option (d) is correct
- The Danish government on Thursday approved a plan to build an artificial island in the North Sea as part of its effort to switch to green energy. The project is being called the largest construction project to be undertaken in Denmark’s history with an estimated cost of DKK 210 billion.
What is an energy island?
- An energy island is based on a platform that serves as a hub for electricity generation from surrounding offshore wind farms.
- The idea is to connect and distribute power between Denmark and neighbouring countries. Denmark has already entered into agreements with the Netherlands, Germany and Belgium to begin the joint analysis of connections in the energy island.
- It will be located about 80 km into the North Sea and the majority of it will be owned by the Danish government. Its primary purpose is to provide large-scale offshore wind power.
Consider the following Statements regarding One Person Companies
- Its introduction was based on the suggestions of the J.J. Irani Committee Report on Company Law
- The residency limit for an Indian citizen to set up an OPC is 365 days.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In News: Explained | What are one-person companies, and why do we need them?
- In her Budget speech, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced measures to ease norms on setting up one-person companies (OPCs).
- According to data compiled by the Monthly Information Bulletin on Corporate Sector, there were 34,235 one-person companies out of a total number of about 1.3 million active companies in India, as on December 31, 2020.
What is a one-person company?
- As the name suggests, a one-person company is a company that can be formed by just one person as a shareholder.
- These companies can be contrasted with private companies, which require a minimum of two members to get going.
- As an individual, a person could get into business through a sole proprietorship mode,
Why do we need such companies?
- In a one-person company, the sole owner’s liability is limited to that person’s investment.
- In a sole proprietorship set-up, however, the owner has unlimited liability as they are not considered different legal entities
- To encourage corporatization of small businesses.
- It is useful for entrepreneurs to have this option while deciding to start a business.
Is this a new idea?
- Such a concept already exists in many countries. In India, the concept was introduced in the Companies Act of 2013.
- Its introduction was based on the suggestions of the J.J. Irani Committee Report on Company Law, which submitted its recommendations in 2005. Hence Statement 1 is correct
What has changed for these companies with the new measures in this year’s Budget?
- One of the measures that the Finance Minister has announced in the Budget pertains to the removal of restrictions on paid-up capital and turnover.
- The 2014 rule, which stated that a one-person company would cease to have that status once its paid-up share capital exceeds 50 lakh or its average turnover for the preceding three years exceeds Rs.2 crore, has been lifted
- The proposals include reducing the residency limit for an Indian citizen to set up an OPC from 182 days to 120 days and also allow non-resident Indians (NRIs) to incorporate OPCs in India. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
Consider the following Statements regarding African swine fever
- It is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects domestic and wild pigs
- It is not a risk to human health.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- In News: Natural mutation found in African swine fever virus
- Chinese scientists have found a natural mutation in the African swine fever virus they say could be less deadly than the strain that ravaged the world’s largest pig herd in 2018 and 2019.
- At least two new strains of African swine fever had been found on Chinese pig farms, which appeared to be man-made. The strains are causing a chronic form of African swine fever that is impacting production on sow farms
- The new strain, called HuB20, had a partial deletion of the CD2v gene and an adjacent 8CR gene. Earlier research in Russia has suggested that deleting the two genes could protect against African swine fever.
- The genes are different to those missing from virus isolates
- African swine fever (ASF)
- ASF is a severe viral disease that affects wild and domestic pigs typically resulting in an acute hemorrhagic fever. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- It is caused by a large DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family, which also infects ticks of the genus Ornithodoros
- Its routes of transmission include direct contact with an infected or wild pig (alive or dead), indirect contact through ingestion of contaminated material such as food waste, feed or garbage or through biological vectors such as ticks.
- It is not a risk to human health. Hence Statement 2 is correct
- Currently there is no approved vaccine for ASF.
- It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
- The mortality is close to 100 per cent, and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop it spreading is by culling the animals.
Source: TH
Consider the following Statements regarding MCA21
- It is an e-Governance initiative of Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- It is designed to fully automate all processes related to the proactive enforcement and compliance of the legal requirements under the Companies Act, 1956
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- In News: Govt to launch AI-driven MCA portal in FY22
- The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) will launch the data analytics-driven MCA21 Version 3.0 by October 2021 in the financial year 2021-22.
- The MCA21 V3 project aims to strengthen enforcement, promote ease of doing business, enhance user experience, facilitate seamless integration and data exchange among regulators.
- The project will have micro-services architecture with high scalability and capabilities for advanced analytics
- Aligned with global best practices and aided by emerging technologies like artificial intelligence and machine learning, MCA21 V3 is expected to transform the corporate regulatory environment in India.
- Its key features include a central cell to scrutinise certain Straight Through Process (STP) forms filed by corporates on the MCA21 registry and flag the companies for more in-depth scrutiny. Another is an e-adjudication module, which has been conceptualised to manage the increased volume of adjudication proceedings by the registrar of companies (RoC) and regional directors (RD).
- The new version will also have a compliance management system (CMS), which will assist MCA in identifying non-compliant companies/LLPs, issuing e-notices to the said defaulting companies/LLPs and generating alerts for internal users of MCA.
About MCA 21
- MCA21 is an e-Governance initiative of Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), Government of India that enables an easy and secure access of the MCA services to the corporate entities, professionals and citizens of India. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- The MCA21 application is designed to fully automate all processes related to the proactive enforcement and compliance of the legal requirements under the Companies Act, 1956, New Companies Act, 2013 and Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008. This will help the business community to meet their statutory obligations. Hence Statement 2 is correct
Consider the following Statements regarding Megamalai-Srivilliputhur tiger reserve
- It will become the India’s 50th tiger reserve
- It will spread to 1.48 lakh hectares of land comprising the districts of Theni , Madurai and Srivilliputhur
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In News: Srivilliputhur–Megamalai Tiger Reserve in TN approved
- The Central government has given its approval for the creation of a fifth tiger reserve in Tamil Nadu that will encompass the Meghamalai and Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- For nearly a decade now, environmental activists have been seeking a tiger reserve linking these two sanctuaries, adjoining the Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala, and then to connect it with the Tirunelveli Wildlife Sanctuary, and then to Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve to make it a contiguous corridor where the big cats can thrive.
- The Forest Department’s proposal was to declare 1.48 lakh hectares of land encompassing Meghamalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary and Tirunelveli Wildlife Sanctuary as Tamil Nadu’s fifth tiger reserve.
- The 1.48 lakh hectares of land — encompassing the Meghamalai Wildlife Sanctuary (spread across the districts of Theni and Madurai) and Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary, which adjoins Kerala’s Periyar Tiger Reserve and Tirunelveli’s Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve — is being declared as the state’s fifth tiger reserve. Hence Statement 2 is correct
- India presently has 50 tiger reserves and the latest addition in Tamil Nadu will become the country’s 51st reserve. Kalakkad Mundanthurai was Tamil Nadu’s first Tiger reserve, created between 1988 and 1989. Then came Anamalai and Mudumalai formed between 2008 and 2009. The state’s fourth tiger reserve is Sathyamangalam, which was formed between the years 2013 and 2014. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- According to a report by the Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON) which recommended the expansion of Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary, direct and indirect evidence of tigers were mostly restricted to the western plateau of the landscape.
- Meghamalai, which has a lot of cardamom hills, has a large population of ungulates (hoofed mammals), spotted deers, Indian gaurs, wild boars and other carnivores. Srivilliputhur, on the other hand, hosts grizzled giant squirrels, flying squirrels, leopards, Nilgiri tahrs, jungle cats, Sambars, elephants and many species of birds, including the lion-tailed macaque.
Consider the following Statements regarding Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA)
- It is a special operation unit of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) of India.
- It is established in the year 2009 to counter the Naxalite problem.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In News:
- A maiden contingent of 34 CRPF women personnel was on Saturday inducted into its specialised jungle warfare commando force CoBRA
- A ceremonial event was held at the forces” camp in Kadarpur village here with CRPF Director General A P Maheshwari witnessing combat drills performed by the chosen women as he underlined that it was important to defeat gender-based beliefs and stereotypes.
- The personnel, earmarked for CoBRA, have been chosen from the existing six all-women battalions of the force, a Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
- An all-women brass band of the country”s largest paramilitary was also commissioned during the ceremony that was held to mark the 35th Raising Day anniversary of its first women battalion.
- The first battalion, numbered 88, was raised this day in 1986 at a CRPF base in Delhi and the force now has six such units with just over 1,000 personnel in each.
- The CRPF also has an all-women pipe band that was raised in 2012.
- The CRPF, with a strength of about 3.25 lakh personnel, is designated as the lead internal security combat unit with its maximum deployment in three major theatres of Jammu and Kashmir, Left Wing Extremism affected states and insurgency-hit areas on India”s northeast.
- About Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA)
- COBRA is a special operation unit of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) of India. Hence Statement 1 is correct
- The operation unit is skilled in the guerrilla tactics and jungle warfare.
- It established in the year 2009 to counter the Naxalite problem. Hence Statement 2 is correct
- It is deployed to tackle the insurgent groups who are engaged in asymmetrical warfare.
- Currently, there are ten battalions of CoBRA.
- The battalions are one of the most experienced and successful law enforcement units
In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?
- Cambay Basin
- Cauvery Basin
- Krishna-Godavari Basin
- Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
Shale gas is the natural gas that is trapped within shale formations. ONGC sought permission for drilling 11 exploratory wells for shale oil and shale gas in Cambay basin at Mehsana, Ahmedabad and Bharuch districts of Gujarat, one well in Cauvery basin at Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu and five wells in KG Basin at East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. Other regions in India where shale gas resources are found – Cauvery, Ganga & Assam and Assam – Arakan; Gondwana basin (including Damodar).
