1. Consider the following statements regarding Special Economic Zones
1) Foreign agency can set up SEZs in India.
2) Normal labour laws are applicable to SEZ
3) They are located within a country’s national borders
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Government proposes to replace existing SEZ law with new legislation
· The government on Tuesday proposed to replace the existing law governing special economic zones (SEZs) with a new legislation to enable states to become partners in ‘Development of Enterprise and Service Hubs’.
· The existing SEZ Act was enacted in 2006 with an aim to create export hubs and boost manufacturing in the country.
· However, these zones started losing their sheen after imposition of minimum alternate tax and introduction of sunset clause for removal of tax incentives.
About Special Economic Zones
What is a Special Economic Zone (SEZ)?
· Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave and shall be deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties and tariffs.
· In other words, SEZ is a geographical region that has economic laws different from a country’s typical economic laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Who can set up SEZs? Can foreign companies set up SEZs?
· Any private/public/joint sector or state government or its agencies can set up an SEZ.
· Yes, a foreign agency can set up SEZs in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
What is the role of state governments in establishing SEZs?
· State governments will have a very important role to play in the establishment of SEZs.
· Representative of the state government, who is a member of the inter-ministerial committee on private SEZ, is consulted while considering the proposal.
Are SEZ’s controlled by the government?
· In all SEZs the statutory functions are controlled by the government.
· Government also controls the operation and maintenance function in the seven central government controlled SEZs.
· The rest of the operations and maintenance are privatized.
Are SEZs exempt from labour laws?
· Normal labour laws are applicable to SEZs, which are enforced by the respective state governments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
· The state governments have been requested to simplify the procedures/returns and for introduction of a single window clearance mechanism by delegating appropriate powers to development commissioners of SEZs.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Sultanpur National Park
1) It is situated in the state of Haryana.
2) It is famous for its migratory as well as resident birds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:
· Homestays would soon be allowed in the villages around Sultanpur National Park in Gurugram to promote tourism and provide an opportunity to the visitors to catch a glimpse of rural life in Haryana.
· It was announced by Chief Minister Manohar Lal at World Wetlands Day programme held at Sultanpur National Park
· Sultanpur and Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary in Jhajjar to spot migratory birds and plans were being made for their stay.
About Sultanpur National Park
· Sultanpur National Park, a bird sanctuary on Gurgaon-FarrukhNagar Road is a seasonal wetland that attracts around 200 species of migratory birds every year between October and March from Europe, Siberia and Central Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct.
· The park is also a home of several species of insects, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.
· The park is located on the Sultanpur Jheel (an area of 1.21 sq. Km.) and the jheel was accorded Sanctuary status on 2 April 1971 under section 8 of the Punjab Wildlife Preservation Act of 1959.
· The decision of granting the Sanctuary status was taken after the 1969 Conference of the International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) in New Delhi.
· The status of the park was upgraded to National Park under Section 35 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 on 5 July 1991. Simultaneously the area was increased to 1.42 sq. Km.
· The National Park has been carved out of the land of Sadhrana, Chandu, Sultanpur and Saidpur villages.
3. India Press Freedom Report, 2021 is released by which of the following organization?
a) Rights and Risks Analysis Group
b) NITI Aayog
c) Ministry of External Affairs
d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Answer: (a) Rights and Risks Analysis Group
Explanation:
In NEWS: J&K, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tripura topped in attacks on journalists in 2021.
· Jammu and Kashmir, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Tripura topped the list of States and Union Territories where journalists and media houses were targeted in 2021, a report by a New Delhi-based rights group.
· In its “India Press Freedom Report 2021” released, Rights and Risks Analysis Group (RRAG) stated that at least six journalists were killed and 121 journalists/media houses including 108 journalists and 13 media houses/newspapers were targeted in India. Hence option (a) is correct
· It is followed by Delhi (8), Bihar (6), Assam (5), Haryana and Maharashtra (4 each), Goa and Manipur (3 each), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal (2 each), and Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Kerala (1each).
· While J&K recorded the maximum attacks by State actors, Tripura had the most cases of attacks by non-State actors, the analysis of data showed.
· The highest number of journalists or media organizations targeted was in J&K (25), followed by Uttar Pradesh (23), Madhya Pradesh (16), Tripura (15), Delhi (8), Bihar (6), Assam (5), Haryana and Maharashtra (4 each), Goa and Manipur (3 each), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal (2 each), and Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Kerala (1 each)
· In 2021, the Enforcement Directorate and the Income Tax Department raided offices of media houses or newspapers and houses of journalists who were critical of policies and functioning of the government
4. Consider the following statements regarding Collegium System
1) The word Collegium is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
2) It is headed by the CJI and comprises 4 other senior-most judges of the court.
3) It came into existence through Second and Third Judges Case judgments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Supreme Court collegium recommends elevation of 6 judicial officers as Delhi HC judges.
· The Supreme Court collegium headed by Chief Justice N.V. Ramana has recommended to the Centre the names of six judicial officers for appointment as judges of the Delhi High Court.
· The Supreme Court Collegium in its meeting held on 1st February, 2022 has approved the proposal for elevation of the following Judicial Officers as Judges in the Delhi High Court
Collegium System
· It is a novel mechanism devised to ensure a democratic system of appointment and transfer of judges
· It came into existence through Second and Third Judges Case judgments. Hence statement 3 is correct.
· There is no such law or constitutional provision that mentions or defines the collegium system. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· It is headed by the CJI and comprises 4 other senior-most judges of the court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
· An HC collegium is led by its Chief Justice and four other senior-most judges of that court.
· NJAC was thought of as a replacement of the Collegium System but it was invalidated by the Supreme Court.
· Article 124(2): The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President after consultation with such a number of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose.
· Article 217: The Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President in consultation with the CJI and the State Governor, and, in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court.
5. Consider the following statements regarding Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
1) He was a Sufi mystic saint and philosopher.
2) He was contemporary to Qutub-ud-din Aibak and Iltutmish.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM presents Chadar to be offered at Ajmer Sharif Dargah on the Urs of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
· Prime Minister of India presented a Chadar which shall be offered at the Ajmer Sharif Dargah on the Urs of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.
About Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.
· He was born in Iran in 1141-42 CE.
· He was a Sufi mystic saint and philosopher. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· He is the most famous saint of the Chishti order of Sufism in the Indian Subcontinent.
· Also known as ‘Gharib Nawaaz’ and ‘Benefactor of the poor’.
· He made Ajmer, Rajasthan his residence, where his resting place, the Ajmer Sharif Dargah is located.
· At his Dargah, chadar is offered for prayer by both Hindus and Muslims which represents the spirit of mutual respect and unity in the diversity of India.
· He was contemporary to Qutub-ud-din Aibak and Iltutmish. Hence statement 2 is correct.
· He died in 1236.
6. Consider the following statements regarding Saffron
1) It is referred to as bahukam in ancient Sanskrit literature.
2) It is cultivated and harvested in the Karewa highlands of Jammu &Kashmir.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: SAFFORN BOWL PROJECT
· Recently, North East Centre for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) under Saffron Bowl project has identified a few locations in Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya for saffron cultivation.
· In Arunachal Pradesh, there is a good growth of organic saffron with flowers. In Meghalaya, sample plantations were grown at Cherrapunji, Mawsmai and Lalingtop sites.
About Saffron
· Saffron is a spice derived from the flower of Crocus sativus, commonly known as the “saffron crocus”.
· The scientific name of wild saffron is Crocus cartwrightianus.
· The vivid crimson stigma and styles, called threads, are collected and dried for use mainly as a seasoning and colouring agent in food.
· It has long been the world’s costliest spice by weight.
· Its production has long been restricted to a limited geographical area in the Union territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
· It is believed that saffron cultivation was introduced in Kashmir by Central Asian immigrants around the 1st Century BCE.
· Pampore region, in India, commonly known as Saffron bowl of Kashmir, is the main contributor to saffron production, followed by Budgam, Srinagar, and Kishtiwar districts.
· It has traditionally been associated with the famous Kashmiri cuisine and has medicinal values.
· It is referred to as bahukam in ancient Sanskrit literature. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· It is cultivated and harvested in the Karewa highlands of J&K. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1794780
7. Which of the following criteria to identify the Wetlands of International Importance laid out by Ramsar Convention?
1) It regularly supports 20,000 or more water birds.
2) It regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
3) It supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular bio-geographic region.
4) It supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
Select the correct options from the given below to codes
a) 1,3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Coringa, a case of negligence in claiming ‘Ramsar status’
· In 2002, Asia’s freshwater lake, Kolleru in Andhra Pradesh, was designated as Ramsar site — a wetland of international importance.
· Since then, the State appears to have not put any effort for getting Ramsar status for any of its other wetlands despite being blessed with wetlands that officially meet the Ramsar Convention’s (Iran-1971) nine criteria.
· Godavari estuary is a case of negligence by the State to claim its international importance.
· The estuary, including 235.70 sq. km Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (CWS), is one of the rarest eco-regions on the earth. It is also home to India’s second-largest mangrove cover after the Sundarbans.
· The CWS is inhabited by 115 endangered fishing cats (Prionailurus viverrinus), Olive Ridley turtles, Indian smooth-coated otter, and saltwater crocodiles.
What are the nine criteria laid out by Ramsar Convention?
· Criterion 1: “it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.”
· Criterion 2: “it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.”
· Criterion 3: “it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.”
· Criterion 4: “it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.”
· Criterion 5: “it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds.”
· Criterion 6: “it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.”
· Criterion 7: “it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.”
· Criterion 8: “it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.”
· Criterion 9: “it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.” Hence option (d) is correct
8. Consider the following statements regarding India’s definition of Forests
1) It is defined as ‘all land, more than one hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more than 10 percent irrespective of ownership and legal status.
2) It includes orchards, bamboo and palm’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: No plan to change ‘forest cover’ definition at present, says govt
· India has “no plan”, at present, to change the definition of “forest cover and very dense forest”
· India’s definition of forest has been taken on the basis of three criteria as per the decision under Kyoto Protocol and very well accepted by United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for their reporting or communications
· The forest can be defined by any country depending upon the capacities and capabilities of the country.
· The three criteria based on which the forests are defined, comprises, crown cover percentage, minimum area of stand and minimum height of trees.
· The forest cover is defined as ‘all land, more than one hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more than 10 per cent irrespective of ownership and legal status. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· Such land may not necessarily be a recorded forest area.
· It also includes orchards, bamboo and palm. Hence statement 2 is correct.
In ISFR 2021 recently published has divided the forest cover as-
· Inside Recorded Forest Area: These are basically natural forests and plantations of Forest Department.
· Outside Recorded Forest Area: These cover mango orchards, coconut plantations, block plantations of agro-forestry.
9. Consider the following statements regarding Golden langur
1) It is found only in Assam and Bhutan.
2) It is a Schedule-I species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
3) It is also known as leaf monkey.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Assam villagers oppose sanctuary tag for golden langur habitat
· Neighbours of a golden langur habitat in western Assam’s Bongaigaon district have opposed a move by the State government to upgrade it to a wildlife sanctuary.
· Kakoijana Reserve Forest is one of the better-known homes of the golden langur.
· The villagers demanded that the “conventional idea of wildlife sanctuary” be dropped and the reserve forest converted into a community forest resource “using Forest Rights Act, 2006, to ensure community co-managed system of participation for sustainable conservation.
· The villagers pointed out that the conservation efforts of the locals had helped the authorities concerned to restore the forest canopy from less than 5% to more than 70%, and the golden langur population from less than 100 to more than 600 over almost three decades.
About Golden langur
· Golden langurs can be most easily recognized by the color of their fur
· Golden langur (Trachypithecus geei) found only in Assam and Bhutan and a Schedule-I species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct and Hence statement 2 is correct.
· It is listed as among the world’s 25 most endangered primates.
· The color of the young also differs from adults in that they are almost pure white.
· They are highly dependent on trees, living in the upper canopy of forests. They are also known as leaf monkeys. Hence statement 3 is correct.
· Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): Appendix I
10. Consider the following statements:
1) The Governor of the Reserve bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2) Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3) The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
· According to Section 8 of RBI ACT 1934- A Governor and (not more than four) Deputy Governors to be appointed by the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· According to Section 7 of RBI ACT 1934- The Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the Bank as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest. There is no such provision in the constitution of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
· According to Section 7 of RBI Act 1934- The Governor and in his absence the Deputy Governor nominated by him in this behalf, shall also have powers of general superintendence and direction of the affairs and the business of the Bank, and may exercise all powers and do all acts and things which may be exercised or done by the Bank. Hence statement 3 is correct.
