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Daily Prelims Test – 04_February 2021

Recently, the researchers have discovered ‘Cirrhimuraena’ a new species of:

Snake eel

Geckos

Wild Spider

Giant flying squirrel

Answer: (a) Snake Eel

Explanation:

In NEWS: New species of snake eel found in Bay of Bengal by researchers

  • Researchers have discovered a new species of snake eel from the ports of Paradip in Odisha and Petuaghat harbour in West Bengal along the Bay of Bengal. Hence option (a) is correct
  • The genus of the species is It is part of the Ophichthidae family of snake eels and its order is Anguilliformes.
  • The researchers found six specimens of the new species from Paradip
  • They concluded that the new species belonged to the same clade as Cirrhimuraena chinensis and was separated from it morphologically and genetically.
  • Cirrhimuraena chinensis is a tropical, marine eel that is known from China and Papua New Guinea, in the western Pacific Ocean.
  • The scientists have proposed the name of the new species as ‘Indian fringe-lip eel’ or Cirrhimuraena indica.
  • There are 12 nominal species belonging to the genus Cirrhimureaena known in the Indo-West Pacific
  • It was the second new fish species discovered by researchers from the Odisha coast in the past two years
  • The scientists named the species as Odishi moray (scientifically named Gymnothorax odishi) as it was first sighted in Odisha.
  • Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/new-species-of-snake-eel-found-in-bay-of-bengal-by-researchers-75352

·        


Consider the following Statements regardingLingaraj Temple

It is an ancient temple dedicated to Lord Shiva

It is built in red stone and in the Deula style of architecture.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2
  • Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
  • Explanation:
  • In NEWS: Bhubaneswar civic body destroys heritage structures around Lingaraj temple
  • Bhubaneswar’s municipal corporation has razed portions of a heritage complex around Lingaraj temple in the Odisha capital to create more space for devotees to pray on Shivratri next month at the 11th-century shrine, conservation group Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH)
  • INTACH team, said the municipal corporation’s action in the heritage zone, ostensibly part of a beautification attempt, was carried out in violation of the law governing archaeological sites and without the approval from the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
  • About Lingaraj temple
  • It is an ancient temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, situated in the city of Bhubaneswar.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The temple was built in the 7th century by the King Jajati Keshari.
  • Lingaraj is referred to as “Swayambhu” i.e. self-originated Shivling.
  • The temple marks the culmination of the temple architecture in Bhubaneswar which was the cradle of the Kalinga School of Temple Architecture.
  • It is built in red stone and is a classic example of Kalinga style of architecture. Located to the north of the temple is Bindusagar Lake.
  • The temple is Lingaraj Temple built in the Deula style that has four components namely, vimana (structure containing the sanctum), jagamohana (assembly hall), natamandira (festival hall) and bhoga-mandapa (hall of offerings), each increasing in the height to its predecessor.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It signifies the syncretisation of Shaivism and Vaishnavism sects in Odisha.
  • Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/bhubaneswar-civic-body-destroys-heritage-structures-around-lingaraj-temple-101612278122295.html

·        


.Consider the following Statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Bill, 2020:

  • It sets up state level Medical Boards to decide if a pregnancy may be terminated after 24 weeks in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities.
  • It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 12 weeks to 20 under special circumstances.
  • Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2
  • Answer: (a) 1 only
  • Explanation:
  • In NEWS: Medical board on abortion ‘unfeasible’, says study
  • A panel of doctors to decide on termination of pregnancy beyond 24 weeks as proposed in the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Bill, 2020, is “unfeasible” as 82% of these posts are lying vacant in the country, finds a new study.
  • The report analysed district-wise availability of specialists, including surgeons, obstetricians and gynaecologists, physicians and paediatricians. It found that for each of the years between 2015-2019, the shortfall in these posts hovered between 71% to 81.8%.
  • Northeast states of Sikkim, Mizoram and Manipur showed total absence of obstetricians and gynaecologists, and a near total absence of paediatricians.
  • Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya had a 100% shortage of paediatricians.
  • It indicated a severe lack of doctors across India leading to setting up of Boards unfeasible.

About Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Bill, 2020:

The Act regulates the conditions under which a pregnancy may be aborted.  The Bill increases the time period within which abortion may be carried out.

Termination of pregnancy:

  • Proposes requirement of opinion of one registered medical practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
  • Proposes for the requirement of opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
  • The termination of pregnancies up to 24 weeks will only apply to specific categories of women, as may be prescribed by the central government (i.e, for survivors of rape, and other vulnerable women)

Termination due to failure of contraceptive method or device: 

  • Under the Act a pregnancy may be terminated up to 20 weeks by a married woman in the case of failure of contraceptive method or device.  The Bill allows unmarried women to also terminate a pregnancy for this reason.

Medical Boards:  

  • All state and union territory governments will constitute a Medical Board.   The Board will decide if a pregnancy may be terminated after 24 weeks due to substantial foetal abnormalities.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • Each Board will have a gynaecologist, paediatrician, radiologist/sonologist, and other members notified by the state government.

Privacy:

  • A registered medical practitioner may only reveal the details of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated to a person authorised by law.  Violation is punishable with imprisonment up to a year, a fine, or both.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/medical-board-on-abortion-unfeasible-says-study/article33711124.ece


Consider the following Statements regarding Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management

  • It would address specific research needs and knowledge gaps and will aid in the application of integrated approaches for conservation, management and wise use of the wetlands
  • It would function as a part of the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), Chennai.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: India sets up its first wetland conservation centre in Chennai

  • India, on the occasion of Wetland Conservation Day on Tuesday, set up its first dedicated centre for conservation of wetlands, which occupy around 4.6 per cent of the country’s landmass.
  • The CWCM is a part of Chennai-based National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM).Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The dedicated Centre (CWCM) which is launched would address specific research needs and knowledge gaps and will aid in the application of integrated approaches for conservation, management and wise use of the wetlands. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The wetland conservation centre would assist the national and regional governments in designing and implementing policy and regulatory frameworks, management planning and targeted research for conservation of wetlands in the country.
  • It would act as a knowledge hub for wetland researchers, policymakers, managers and users.

India has 42 Ramsar sites

  • Wetlands are one of the most important freshwater sources. They also provide various ecological services. India is extremely rich in terms of wetland diversity and is one of the few countries in the world to have a wetland inventory system, wherein remote sensing techniques have been used to map the wetlands.
  • There are 42 sites in the country that have been designated as Wetlands of International Importance or Ramsar sites. The CWCM will help in building with relevant national and international agencies for the conservation and management of wetlands.

Source: https://www.timesnownews.com/chennai/article/india-sets-up-its-first-wetland-conservation-centre-in-chennai/715371


Consider the following Statements regarding GOBAR DHAN scheme

  • It is being implemented as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission
  • It aims to positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Union Ministers jointly launch unified web portal for monitoring progress of GOBARDHAN activities

  • A unified web portal for monitoring the progress of GOBARDHAN activities across the nation
  • Gobardhan is an important component of Swachh Bharat Mission Phase-2 for organic solid waste management.
  • Agriculture Minister Narendra Singh Tomar expressed confidence that the launch of unified portal of Gobardhan will further strengthen the rural economy through a convergent approach for various Biogas projects models and initiatives.
  • The ODF Plus goal outlined in the Phase 2 of Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin ) will depend on the performance of Gobardhan scheme to a great extent as it will not only effectively address the solid waste management challenge but will increase livelihood opportunities, and household earnings of farmers and people living in rural areas.

About GOBAR-DHAN scheme

  • Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation has launched the GOBAR (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) – DHAN scheme. The scheme is being implemented as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin).Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) comprises two main components for creating clean villages – creating open defecation free (ODF) villages and managing solid and liquid waste in villages.
  • The GOBAR-DHAN scheme, with its focus on keeping villages clean, increasing the income of rural households, and generation of energy from cattle waste, is an important element of this ODF-plus strategy.
  • The scheme aims to positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste. The scheme also aims at creating new rural livelihood opportunities and enhancing income for farmers and other rural people.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The programme will be implemented using SLWM funding pattern of SBM-G Guidelines
  • Only those Gram Panchayats which have not availed SLWM funds under SBM(G) are eligible to receive the financial assistance under GOBAR-Dhan scheme, subject to the limits of guidelines.

Source: http://newsonair.com/News?title=Union-Ministers-jointly-launch-unified-web-portal-for-monitoring-progress-of-GOBARDHAN-activities&id=409148


Consider the following Statements regarding Lithium

  • It is a soft, silvery-white metal.
  • It is non-reactive, inflammable and normally stored in water.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Preliminary survey shows deposits of Lithium in Mandya district of Karnataka

  • Preliminary surveys on surface and limited subsurface by Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of Department of Atomic Energy have shown presence of Lithium resources of 1,600 tonnes (inferred category) in the pegmatites of Marlagalla – Allapatna area, Mandya district, Karnataka.
  • The thermonuclear application makes Lithium as “Prescribed substance” under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 which permits AMD for exploration of Lithium in various geological domains of the country.
  • India currently imports all its lithium needs.

About Lithium

  • It is a chemical element with the symbol Li.
  • It is a soft, silvery-white metal.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element.
  • It is an alkali metal and a rare metal.
  • Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactiveand flammable, and must be stored in mineral oil. When cut, it exhibits a metallic luster, but moist air corrodes it quickly to a dull silvery gray, then black tarnish.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
  • Lithium is a key element for new technologies and finds its use in ceramics, glass, telecommunication and aerospace industries.
  • The well-known uses of Lithium are in Lithium ion batteries, lubricating grease, high energy additive to rocket propellants, optical modulators for mobile phones and as convertor to tritium used as a raw material for thermonuclear reactions i.e. fusion.
  • Lithium metal is used to make useful alloys.
  • Lithium can be extracted in different ways, depending on the type of the deposit – it is generally done either through solar evaporation of large brine pools or by hard-rock extraction of the ore.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1694796


Kaliveli wetland, which was in news recently is located in

Kerala

Karnataka

Gujarat

Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation:

In NEWS: Move to declare Kaliveli wetlands a sanctuary: first declaration issued

  • In a major push to declare Kaliveli wetlands, the second-largest brackish water lake in South India after Pulicat lake, a bird sanctuary, the Villupuram district administration has issued the first declaration under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.Hence option (d) is correct
  • The decision is seen as a big win for Forest Department officials and conservationists, and their efforts to protect this wetland that remains a safe haven for diverse flora and fauna
  • The first declaration was issued by the District Administration recently under Section 18 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The Kaliveli wetlands is ecologically important and the decision is expected to enhance the conservation activities in the biodiversity hotspot

About Kaliveli wetlands

  • Located close to Marakkanam on the East Coast Road, the Kaliveli Lake, spread over an expanse of 670 sq.km of catchment area, is said to be one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after the Pulicat Lake.
  • The lake is connected to the Bay of Bengal by the Uppukalli Creek and the Edayanthittu sanctuary and is visited for nesting by migratory birds on the Central Asian flyway.
  • The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001.
  • According to a 2004 assessment of the Indian Bird Conservation Network and Bird Life International, Kaliveli supports more than 20,000 birds every year.
  • The lake has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff and Dublin.

Significance

  • The declaration will ensure that no construction take place in the surroundings.
  • The declaration will help in maintaining the natural biosphere and biodiversity of the area.
  • It will also create jobs for the local residents through eco-tourism.
  • Further, the wetlands have large area that will help in recharging the ground water table.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/move-to-declare-kaliveli-wetlands-a-sanctuary-first-declaration-issued/article33739194.ece


Yudh Abhyas’ is a joint military exercise between India and

USA 

Russai

UAE

Bangladesh

Answer: (a) USA

Explanation:

  • In NEWS:Indo-US joint military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas’ to begin in Rajasthan on Feb 8
  • The exercise near the India-Pakistan border aims at enhancing cooperation and interoperability between the two armies and will focus on counter-terrorism operations under the United Nations mandate
  • The 16th edition of Indo-US joint military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas’ will be held in Rajasthan between February 8 and 21. Hence option (a) is correct
  • The drill comes days after the air forces of India and France held a five-day joint exercise in Rajasthan
  • The bilateral training exercise of the two armies will be held at the Foreign Training Node in the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges.
  • Yudh Abhyas between two armies is held since 2004. The exercise has been designed to promote the cooperation between both the armies. Both the sides share their training techniques, their culture and build the joint operating skills.
  • The joint military exercise will enhance the level of defence cooperation between both armies which will also foster the bilateral relations between both nations and reiterate India’s key role as a key partner in the Indo-Pacific region

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/indous-joint-military-exercise-yudh-abhyas-to-begin-in-rajasthan-on-feb-8-101612343866346.html#:~:text=india%20news-,Indo%2DUS%20joint%20military%20exercise%20’Yudh%20Abhyas’%20to%20begin,Nations%20mandate%2C%20the%20spokesperson%20said.


Consider the following Statements regardingNo Confidence Motion

  • It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
  • It can be moved by any member of the House.
  • It can be admitted when a minimum of half of the memberssupport the motion in the house.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Haryana Congress to move no-confidence motion against governmen

  • Haryana Congress Legislature Party has decided to move a no-confidence motion against the state government on the Centre’s farm laws issues.

About No Confidence Motion

  • The “No Confidence Motion” is an important tool against the Council of Ministers (COM)in the Lok Sabha.
  • A motion of “No Confidence Motion” against the Government can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha under rule 198.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion for the motion.Hence statement 3 is incorrect
  • If the motion is accepted, then the party in power has to prove its majority in the House.
  • The member need not give a reason for moving the no-confidence motion.
  • If the government is not able to prove its majority in the House, then the government of the day has to resign.
  • Neither a confidence motion nor a no-confidence motion is mentioned in the Constitution.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/haryana-congress-to-move-no-confidence-motion-against-government/article33741309.ece


With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and epic tales was the profession of who of the following?

Shramana

Parivraajaka

Agrahaarika

Maagadha

Answer: (d) Maagadha

Explanation:

  • During Gupta period, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories or epic tales was the work of a different group of people, the sutas and magadhas.