Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojan
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme
2. It is a comprehensive package aiming to create modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate to retail outlet
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: 27 projects approved under Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana
- 27 projects were approved in Inter-Ministerial Approval Committee (IMAC) meetings under the Scheme for Integrated Cold Chain and Value addition infrastructure of Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana (PMKSY)
- This Integrated Cold Chain projects will not only provide a big boost to the growth of food processing infrastructure but would also help in streamlining the agricultural supply chain, generate direct and indirect employment opportunities in rural areas, provide better prices to farmers, end-users, and benefit allied sectors.
About Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana
- It is a comprehensive package aiming to create modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate to retail outlet. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It is an umbrella scheme with its period coterminous with the cycle of 14th finance commission. It has various schemes within its gamut.
- In 2017, SAMPADA was renamed as the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY).
- It is a Central Sector Scheme. Hence statement 1 is correct
Under PMKSY the following schemes are to be implemented:
- Mega Food Parks
- Integrated Cold Chain, Value Addition and Preservation Infrastructure
- Creation/Expansion of Food Processing/Preservation Capacities
- Infrastructure for Agro Processing Clusters
- Scheme for Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages
- Food Safety & Quality Assurance Infrastructure
- Human Resources and Institutions
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1650338
Consider the following statements regarding National Company Law Tribunal
1. It is a quasi-judicial body
2. It was formed based on the recommendations of the Justice Eradi Committee
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
- Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: How will telecom firms pay AGR dues over the next 10 years?
- The Supreme Court Tuesday held that telecom firms will get 10 years to clear their adjusted gross revenue or AGR dues, and that the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) should decide whether or not spectrum can be sold under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
What is the AGR issue?
- All the telecom companies that operate in India pay a part of their revenues as licence fee and spectrum charges to the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) for using the spectrum owned by the government.
- In its definition of AGR, the DoT had said that telcos must cover all the revenue earned by them, including from non-telecom sources such as deposit interests and sale of assets.
About National Company Law Tribunal or NCLT
- The National Company Law Tribunal or NCLT is a quasi-judicial body in India adjudicating issues concerning companies in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was formed in 2016, as per the provisions of the Companies Act 2013.
- NCLT was formed based on the recommendations of the Justice Eradi Committee that was related to insolvency and winding up of companies in India. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 also provides wide powers to the NCLT to adjudicate upon the ‘insolvency resolution process’ and liquidation of corporate
Functions
- All proceedings under the Companies Act such as arbitration, arrangements, compromise, reconstruction, and winding up of the company will be disposed of by the Tribunal.
- The NCLT is also the Adjudicating Authority for insolvency proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
- The NCLT has the authority to dispose of cases pending before the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR), as well as, those pending under the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985.
Consider the following statements regarding National Register of Citizens
1. It was introduced to identify illegal immigrants from Bangladesh
2. It was first prepared in 1951 and Assam is the only state having this arrangement.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Assam govt firm on NRC re-verification demand
- The Assam government sticks to its demand of 10-20% re-verification of names included in final National Register of Citizens (NRC) published in 2019.
- The rejection orders to the 19 lakh excluded persons are yet to be issued.
- The excluded persons can appeal against the exclusion in the Foreigners’ Tribunals.
- The state govt. has given an affidavit in Supreme Court for re-verification of 20% included names in the districts bordering Bangladesh and 10% in rest of the districts.
About National Register of Citizens
- The NRC was introduced to identify illegal immigrants from Bangladesh and recognise the Indian citizens in Assam. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was first prepared in 1951 and Assam is the only state having this arrangement. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Under NRC, immigrants who have documents proving that they entered Assam before 1971 will be considered Indian citizens and others have to show that they their ascendants have lived in Assam even before 1971.
- The NRC list was updated under the direct monitoring of the Supreme Court for the first time since 1951 to identify illegal migration into Assam.
- The Final NRC list was published on August 31, 2019 which excluded 19 lakh applicants.
Global Innovation Index 2020 is released by:
- World Intellectual Property Organization
- World Trade Organization
- United Nations Industrial Development Organization
- World Economic Forum
Answer: (a) World Intellectual Property Organization
Explanation:
In NEWS: India ranks 48th on Global Innovation Index
- India broke for the first time into the top-50 club on the Global Innovation Index (GII), riding on improvements in many parameters, particularly in market sophistication and knowledge and technology outputs.
- According to the GII 2020 report, released jointly by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). Hence option (a) is correct
- India not only bettered its ranking by four positions since last year to garner the 48th position but also found its place among top three most innovative countries in the lower middle-income economy band.
- India ranked in the top 15 in indicators such as ICT services exports, government online services, graduates in science and engineering and research & development intensive global companies.
- For the first time, an Indian city, Bengaluru, figured in the top 100 science and technology clusters globally.
- Switzerland continues to be the most innovative nation in the world, followed by Sweden and the US. From Asia, Korea became the second country to break into the top 10, pushing Israel down by one rank to the 11th position. Singapore maintained its 8th rank.
- It was prepared by the Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
- The theme of the Global Innovation Index 2020 is “Who Will Finance Innovation?”
Consider the following statements regarding Question Hour
1. The presiding officers of the two houses are the final authority with respect to the conduct of Question Hour.
2. There is no Question Hour on the day the President addresses MPs from both Houses
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: An Expert Explains: What are Question Hour and Zero Hour, and why they matter
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha secretariats notified that there will be no Question Hour during the Monsoon Session of Parliament, which has been truncated to September 14-October 1 in view of the Covid-19 pandemic, and that Zero Hour will be restricted in both Houses.
About Question Hour
- The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for Question Hour.
- It is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
- It is during this one hour that Members of Parliament ask questions of ministers and hold them accountable for the functioning of their ministries.
- The question should be related to an area of responsibility of the Government of India and the questions should not seek information about matters that are secret or are under adjudication before courts.
- There is no Question Hour on the day the President addresses MPs from both Houses in the Central Hall.
- The Question Hour is not scheduled on the day the Finance Minister presents the Budget.
- The presiding officers of the two houses are the final authority with respect to the conduct of Question Hour. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is the presiding officers of the two Houses who finally decide whether a question raised by an MP will be admitted for answering by the government. Hence statement 2 is correct
- There are three kinds of questions which can be put during the Question Hour:
- A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
- An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
- A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally.
Consider the following statements
1. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
2. The concept of Zero Hour started organically in the first decade of Indian Parliament
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: An Expert Explains: What are Question Hour and Zero Hour, and why they matter
- While Question Hour is strictly regulated, Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation.
- The phrase does not find mention in the rules of procedure. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The concept of Zero Hour started organically in the first decade of Indian Parliament, when MPs felt the need for raising important constituency and national issues. Hence statement 2 is correct
- During the initial days, Parliament used to break for lunch at 1 pm. Therefore, the opportunity for MPs to raise national issues without an advance notice became available at 12 pm and could last for an hour until the House adjourned for lunch.
- The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
Consider the following statements regarding Mission Karmayogi
1. It is a new capacity-building scheme for civil servants aimed at upgrading the post-recruitment training mechanism of the officers and employees at all levels.
2. It will be delivered by setting up a digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Cabinet approves Mission Karmayogi – National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building
- The scheme will lay the foundation for capacity building for Civil Servants so that they remain entrenched in Indian culture while they learn from best practices across the world.
Mission Karmayogi aims to prepare the Indian Civil Servants for future by making them more creative, constructive, imaginative, innovative, proactive, professional, progressive, energetic, enabling, transparent and technology-enabled - It is a new capacity-building scheme for civil servants aimed at upgrading the post-recruitment training mechanism of the officers and employees at all levels. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It will be delivered by setting up a digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The iGOT platform will act as a launchpad for the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), which will enable a comprehensive reform of the capacity building apparatus at the individual, institutional and process levels.
- NPCSCB will be governed by the Prime Minister’s Human Resource Council, which will also include state Chief Ministers, Union Cabinet ministers and experts.
- It will radically improve the Human Resource management practices in the Government.
- It will use scale & state of the art infrastructure to augment the capacity of Civil Servants.
- It aims to prepare Civil Servants for the future by making them more creative, constructive & innovative through transparency and technology.
Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
1. It is a statutory body functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963
2. It is consist of a Chairman and six Members
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Now banks can check ITR filing status of entities based on PAN
- The Income Tax department said it has launched a functionality for scheduled commercial banks to check status of income tax returns filed by entities based on their Permanent Account Number (PAN)
- Central board of direct taxes provides ITR filling compliance check functionality for scheduled commercial banks
- Through a notification on August 31, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) included ‘scheduled commercial banks’ in the list of agencies with which tax authorities can share information.
About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
- It is a statutory body functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance
- It is India’s official Financial Action Task Force unit
- The Central Board of Revenue as the apex body of the Department, charged with the administration of taxes, came into existence as a result of the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1924.
- Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes. Later the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and Customs in 1964.
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes consists of a Chairman and six Members. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The CBDT Chairman and Members of CBDT are selected from Indian Revenue Service (IRS)
Consider the following statements regarding BCG Vaccine
1. It is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis
2. It is given between six months after the birth of a child, but they can be vaccinated any time up to five years of age
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: New research: Study finds BCG protects the elderly from various infections
The study had already started before the pandemic: 198 elderly people were given either a placebo or a BCG vaccine upon discharge from Raboud University Medical Center, the Netherlands.
About BCG Vaccine
- Bacillus – Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB). Hence statement 1 is correct
- BCG is given between six months after the birth of a child, but they can be vaccinated any time up to five years of age. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It was first used in the world in the year 1920
- BCG is used in many countries with a high prevalence of TB to prevent childhood tuberculous meningitis and miliary disease
- BCG vaccine is a live attenuated strain derived from an isolate of Mycobacterium Bovis.
- In countries where tuberculosis or leprosy is common, one dose is recommended in healthy babies as close to the time of birth as possible.
- In areas where tuberculosis is not common, only children at high risk are typically immunized, while suspected cases of tuberculosis are individually tested for and treated.
- The BCG vaccine was first introduced in India as a pilot project in the year 1948
- In 1962, the National TB Program started in India and children were vaccinated soon after birth across the country.
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 2 only
- 1 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- As per NASA, over the last 50 years, Aral Sea has shrunk by about 75% of its original size mainly because of water diversion for agricultural usages in surrounding areas. Also from a depth of 68 meters in the 1960s, today it stands at less than 10 meters. In Lake Baikal, water level has gone below the critical mark of 456m eleven times since 1962. Thus, while Aral Sea has dried up immensely, Lake Baikal shows more of a fluctuating regime and shrinkage is not comparable to that of Aral Sea. Hence option (a) is correct
