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Daily Prelims Test – 02_February_2022

1. Consider the following statements regarding Chennakeshava Temple Complex:

1)    It is located on the banks of the Yagachi River.

2)    The temple artwork depicts pictorial narration of Hindu texts such as the Ramayana, the Mahabharata and the Puranas.

3)    It belongs to the Kakatiya dynasty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 and 2 only

b)    2 and 3 only

c)     1 only

d)    1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Hoysala Temples in Karnataka finalised as India’s nomination for World Heritage List for 2022-2023

●      The ‘Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysala’ have been on UNESCO’s Tentative list since April 15, 2014, and stand testimony to the rich historical and cultural heritage of this country. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.

Ensembles at Belur:

●      Belur was the first capital city of the Hoysalas.

●      The Chennakeshava temple(Vishnu) complex is at the center of the old walled town located on the banks of the Yagachi River. Hence statement (1) is correct

●      The complex itself was walled in a rectangular campus with four rectilinear streets around it for ritual circumambulation of the deity.

●      Construction of the temple commenced in 1117 AD and took 103 years to complete.

●      The temple artwork depicts scenes of secular life in the 12th century, dancers and musicians, as well as a pictorial narration of Hindu texts such as the Ramayana, the Mahabharata and the Puranas. Hence statement (2) is correct

●      Chennakesava is a form of the Hindu god Vishnu. The temple is dedicated to Vishnu and has been an active Hindu temple since its founding.

●      It is reverentially described in medieval Hindu texts, and remains an important pilgrimage site in Vaishnavism.

●      Chariot festivals with processions around the temple complex and festivals centered on the Vishnu Samudra lake have continued to this day.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/hoysala-temples-karnataka-world-heritage-list-2022-2023-7750836/

2. Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala Architecture:

1)    It is a combined version of Vesara and Dravida style.

2)    Kalyani is the most commonly found feature in this Architecture.

3)    The examples of Hoysala temples are Hoysaleshvara temple at Halebid and Keshava temple at Somnathpur.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 and 2 only

b)    2 and 3 only

c)     1 only

d)    1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Hoysala Temples in Karnataka finalised as India’s nomination for World Heritage List for 2022-2023

●      All the three Hoysala temples are protected monuments of the Archaeological Survey of India and therefore their conservation and maintenance will be done by its

Hoysala Architecture:

●      Hoysala architecture is the building style in Hindu temple architecture developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, in the region known today as Karnataka, a state of India.

●      Hoysala influence was at its peak in the 13th century, when it dominated the Southern Deccan Plateau region. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      Large and small temples built during this era remain as examples of the Hoysala architectural style, including the Chennakesava Temple at Belur, the Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu, and the Kesava Temple at Somanathapura. Hence statement (3) is correct.

●      A navaranga was usually included as a place for people to gather and participate in cultural programs such as music and dance performances, story-telling from mythology, and religious discourses.

●      Mantapa that are pavilions or pillared halls of all sizes are a typical feature and occurred with temples and without.

●      Kalyani or stepped wells are commonly found in the Hoysala sacred ensembles. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      The temple complex had ratha beedi or wide streets for processions and circumambulation of the deities on enormous chariots.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/hoysala-temples-karnataka-world-heritage-list-2022-2023-7750836/

3. Consider the following statements regarding Non-tax revenue:

1)    It is the recurring income earned from sources other than taxes.

2)    It does not include disinvestments that the government undertakes in companies where it holds a stake.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 only

b)    2 only

c)     Both 1 and 2

d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: What is the Revenue Budget?

●      The government is now giving final touches to the contours of Union Budget 2022. The Budget can be classified into two parts — the Capital Budget and the Revenue Budget.

●      The Revenue Budget consists of the Government of India’s revenue receipts and the expenditure that is met using said revenue.

●      It gives the details of the sources from where the government’s revenue is coming.

●      Revenue receipts can be further classified into tax revenue and non-tax revenue.

●      The government spends more than it earns, because of which the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure is usually negative. This difference is called the revenue deficit.

Tax revenue

●      Income tax, corporate tax, excise, customs and other duties make up the tax revenues.

●      It is levied on the net income of the company.

●      The collection, surcharge, cess and other receipts make up a huge chunk of the revenue.

Non-tax revenue

●      Non-tax revenue is the recurring income earned from sources other than taxes. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      They include interest receipts, received on loans given by the government to states, railways and others, and dividends and profits received from public sector companies.

●      Non-tax revenue also includes disinvestments that the government undertakes in companies where it holds a stake. Hence statement (2) is incorrect

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/podcast/finance/what-is-revenue-budget-122012800059_1.html

4. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Demand for grants?

a)     It is presented at both the Lower and Upper House along with the Annual Financial Statement

b)    It includes aid given to states and Union Territories

c)     The Lok Sabha has the power to deny or reduce the requested amount

d)    It is the form in which estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund

Answer: (a) It is presented at both the Lower and Upper House along with the Annual Financial Statement

Explanation:

In NEWS: What is Demand for Grants?

●      The Union Budget is finalised with inputs from all ministries and departments about estimates of their spending for the next FY. This estimate tabled as part of the Budget is called Demand for Grants

●      Article 113 of the Indian Constitution requires that any estimate of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India should be voted in Lok Sabha in the form of demand for grants. A summary is given at the beginning of this.

●      It is presented at the Lower House along with the Annual Financial Statement, which shows the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government in the Budget year, revised estimates for the current year and actual amounts for the previous year. Hence, option (a) is correct.

●      Generally, one Demand for Grant is presented in respect of each Ministry or Department.

●      Demand for Grants includes aid given to states and Union Territories and loans and advances related to a scheme.

●      The Lok Sabha has the power to deny or reduce the requested amount for a particular scheme.

●      Demand for Grants is the form in which estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, included in the annual financial statement and required to be voted upon in the Lok Sabha, are submitted in pursuance of Article 113 of the Constitution.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/demands-for-grants

5. Consider the following statements:

1)    Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm.

2)    Crop diversifications are practiced in rainfed lands to reduce the risk factor of crop failures due to drought or less rains.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 only

b)    2 only

c)     Both 1 and 2

d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Centre has adopted MSP, but States must facilitate crop shift’ says MSP panel in Economic Survey.

●      There is an urgent need for crop diversification in view of the severe water stress in areas where paddy, wheat and sugarcane are grown as well as to increase oil seed production and reduce dependency on imports of cooking oil.

●      While the Centre had adopted minimum support prices (MSP) for farm produce as a key tool to encourage crop diversification, the onus was on States to take coordinated action to facilitate a shift towards crops with higher value and lower water consumption.

●      The survey urged for an increase in funding for agricultural research rather than farm subsidies, noting that “every rupee spent on agricultural research and development yields better re- turns compared to subsidies.

●      The government noted that agriculture continued to be a major driver of the economy in the pandemic era, with the sector’s growth rate rising from 3.6% in 2020-21 to 3.9% in 2021-2022.

Crop diversification:

●      Crop diversification is intended to give a wider choice in the production of a variety of crops in a given area so as to expand production related activities on various crops and also to lessen risk. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      Crop diversification in India is generally viewed as a shift from traditionally grown less remunerative crops to more remunerative crops.

●      The crop shift (diversification) also takes place due to governmental policies and thrust on some crops over a given time, for example creation of the Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO) to give thrust on oilseeds production as a national need for the country’s requirement for less dependency on imports. Market infrastructure development and certain other price related supports also induce crop shift.

●      Often low volume high-value crops like spices also aid in crop diversification. Higher profitability and also the resilience/stability in production also induce crop diversification, for example sugarcane replacing rice and wheat.

●      Crop diversification and also the growing of large numbers of crops are practiced in rainfed lands to reduce the risk factor of crop failures due to drought or less rains. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      Crop substitution and shift are also taking place in the areas with distinct soil problems. For example, the growing of rice in high water table areas replacing oilseeds, pulses and cotton; promotion of soybean in place of sorghum in vertisols (medium and deep black soils) etc

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/centre-has-adopted-msp-but-states-must-facilitate-crop-shift/article38355208.ece#:~:text=While%20the%20center%20had%20adopted,water%20 consumption%2C%20the%20department%20said.

6. Consider the following statements regarding UNCITRAL model:

1)    It is the most widely accepted legal framework to deal with cross-border insolvency issues.

2)    It has been adopted by 49 countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 only

b)    2 only

c)     Both 1 and 2

d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: ‘Economic Survey 2022’ calls for standardised Cross-Border Insolvency framework

●      The Economic Survey 2021-22 has called for a standardised framework for Cross-Border insolvency as the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code (IBC) at present does not have a standard instrument to restructure the firms involving cross border jurisdictions leading to several issues.

UNCITRAL on Cross-Border Insolvency:

●      It is a widely accepted legal framework to deal with cross-border insolvency issues. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      It provides a legislative framework that can be adopted by countries with modifications to suit the domestic context of the enacting jurisdiction.

●      It has been adopted by 49 countries until now, such as Singapore, the U.K., the U.S., South Africa and KoreaHence statement (2) is correct.

●      This law addresses the core issues of cross border insolvency cases with the help of four main principles which includes access, recognition, cooperation, and coordination.

●      It allows foreign professionals and creditors direct access to domestic courts and enables them to participate in and commence domestic insolvency proceedings against a debtor.

●      It also allows recognition of foreign proceedings and enables courts to determine relief accordingly.

●      It provides a framework for cooperation between insolvency professionals and courts of countries

●      It allows for coordination in the conduct of concurrent proceedings in different justifications.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/budget/economic-survey-2022-calls-for-standardised-cross-border-insolvency-framework/article38352831.ece

7. Consider the following statements regarding Agile Framework:

1)    It is a framework for project and policy implementation that is considered highly efficient for getting work done.

2)    India’s earlier five-year plans were based on this.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 only

b)    2 only

c)     Both 1 and 2

d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: BL Explainer: What is the ‘Agile Framework’ used in this year’s Economic Survey

●      The central theme of this year’s Economic Survey is the “Agile approach”, implemented through India’s economic response to the COVID-19 Pandemic shock.

What is an Agile Framework?

●      It is a framework for project and policy implementation that is considered highly efficient for getting work done. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      It was developed in 2001 and is based on 12 principles which include customer satisfaction, collaboration, adapting to change, feedback loops, breaking project silos, etc.

What was the framework that India followed earlier?

●      India and most countries across the world typically follow the Waterfall Approach. This involves analysis of the issue, detailed planning and meticulous implementation.

●      India’s earlier five-year plans were based on this. Waterfall Framework is linear and is developed systematically from phase to phase. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.

●      It is said that this approach works best for projects with concrete timelines, well-defined deliverables and little uncertainties.

Why is the Agile Framework preferred today?

●      Real time availability of data allows constant monitoring of a policy at a time when there are a lot of uncertainties.

●      This helps governments to adopt the Agile Framework.

●      The Survey says short term policy responses can be tailored to an evolving situation rather than what a model may have predicted.

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/bl-explainer-what-is-the-agile-framework-used-in-this-years-economic-survey/article64959383.ece

8. Consider the following statements regarding Economic Survey 2022-2023:

1)    The US is the top export destination for India followed by the United Arab Emirates and China.

2)    China, the UAE and the US were the largest import sources for India.

3)    More than 40 per cent of India’s exports are still accounted for by only seven countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 and 3 only

b)    2 only

c)     3 only

d)    1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Economic Survey pitches for FTA push to diversify export basket, destinations

Economic Survey 2022 Highlights:

●      It added that India has diversified its export destinations in the past 25 years, yet more than 40 per cent of the country’s exports is still accounted for by only seven countries. Hence statement (3) is correct.

●      India has been negotiating free trade agreements (FTAs) with several partners – both bilateral and regional – over the past many years with a view to promote India’s exports.

●      A further push in this direction would help provide the institutional arrangements to diversify both products and destinations.

●      India’s exports in April-December 2021 posted a 49.7 percent growth (year-on-year) to $301.4 billion, but imports grew at a sharper rate of 68.9 percent to $443.8 billion during the period, more than doubling the trade deficit to $142.4 billion.

●      This is a cause for concern and underlines the need for greater efforts to boost exports.

●      The US remained the top export destination for India in April-November 2021, followed by United Arab Emirates and ChinaHence statement (1) is correct

●      However, China’s share in India’s total imports reduced to15.5 percent from 17.7 per cent in corresponding period a year earlier, reflecting increased diversification of India’s import sources. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      Belgium replaced Malaysia and entered into the top-10 leading export destinations during April-November 2021, with more than $1 billion worth of pearls, precious and semi-precious stones, and iron and steel shipped to the country.

●      Other countries among India’s top ten export destinations include Bangladesh, Hong Kong, Singapore, the Netherlands, the UK and Germany.

Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/budget/economic-survey-pitches-for-fta-push-to-diversify-export-basket-destinations/2420974/

9. Consider the following statements regarding Social forestry:

1)    The National Commission on Forests used the term Social Forestry in 1976.

2)    It is the management and development of forests with afforestation on barren lands to achieve environmental benefit and rural development.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)     1 only

b)    2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: India ranks third globally in forest area gain: Survey

●      India has increased its forest area in the past decade and ranks third globally in average annual net gain in forest area from 2010-2020, the Department of Economic Affairs said in the annual Economic Survey. India added an average of 2,66,000 hectares of additional forest area every year during the period.

●      Forests covered 24% of India’s total geographical area accounting for 2% of the world’s total forest area in 2020, the Survey said.

●      The top 10 countries account for 66% of the world’s forest area. Of these, Brazil (59%), Peru (57%), Democratic Republic of Congo (56%) and Russia (50%) have half or more of their total geographical area under forests.

●      Among Indian States, Madhya Pradesh with 11% of India’s total forest cover, had the largest area under forests in 2021, followed by Arunachal Pradesh (9%), Chhattisgarh (8%), Odisha (7%) and Maharashtra (7%).

●      Mizoram (85%), Arunachal Pradesh (79%), Meghalaya (76%), Manipur (74%) and Nagaland (74%) were the top five States in terms of highest proportion of forest cover to the geographical area of the State in 2021.

Social forestry

●      Social forestry is the management and development of forests with afforestation on barren lands to achieve environmental benefit and rural development. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      The term was first used by the National Commission on Agriculture, Government of India, in 1976. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      It was then that India embarked upon a social forestry project with the aim of taking the pressure off the forests and making use of all unused and fallow land.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-ranks-third-globally-in-forest-area-gain-survey/article38355310.ece

10. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1)    Brakes of motor vehicles

2)    Engines of motor vehicles

3)    Microwave stoves within homes

4)    Power plants

5)    Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a)     1, 2, 3 and 5 only

b)    1, 2 and 4 only

c)     3, 4 and 5 only

d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

●      Magnetite can have potentially large impacts on the brain due to its unique combination of redox activity, surface charge and strongly magnetic behaviour. Airborne magnetite pollution particles < ~200 nm in size can access the brain directly via the olfactory and/or trigeminal nerves, bypassing the blood -brain barrier.

●      These tiny particles, each less than a thousandth the width of a human hair, are generated by a wide variety of processes, both natural and fabricated, including forest fires and wood -burning stoves, road traffic pollution, and many high -temperature industrial processes. Hence, option (d) is correct.